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NASB | 1 Corinthians 15:27 For HE HAS PUT ALL THINGS IN SUBJECTION UNDER HIS FEET. But when He says, "All things are put in subjection," it is evident that He is excepted who put all things in subjection to Him. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 Corinthians 15:27 For HE (the Father) HAS PUT ALL THINGS IN SUBJECTION UNDER HIS (Christ's) FEET. But when He says, "All things have been put in subjection [under Christ]," it is clear that He (the Father) who put all things in subjection to Him (Christ) is excepted [since the Father is not in subjection to His own Son]. [Ps 8:6] |
Subject: What's Jesus' position? |
Bible Note: To Tim Moran and Hank: Yes, Hank, the Living Bible is "a loose paraphrase." I didn't choose it as an example of a modern translation. Rather to show that a translator can say something that the original writer "did not mean to say." How do you feel about the New English Bible that uses "Jehovah" six times and renders John 1:1 this way: "What God was, the Word was"? Or the New Testament in an Improved Version of 1808, which renders John 1:1 as: "the Word was a god." (See John 6:70; 9:17; Acts 28:6) Philip B. Harner said in the Journal of Biblical Literature, 1973, pp. 85, 87, "Perhaps the clause could be translated, 'the Word had the same nature as God.'" That is, Jesus has "divine nature." (2 Peter 1:4, KJV) That the Living Bible "does better than the New World Translation" is just your opinion. However, Edgar J. Goodspeed said: "It exhibits a vast array of sound serious learning, as I can testify." The Differentiator of April 1952, pp.52-7 said: "The translation is evidently the work of skilled and clever scholars." Tim, The Andover Newton Quarterly said: "The New Testament translation was made by a committee whose membership has never been revealed-a committee that possessed an unusual competence in Greek." The committee asked to remain anonymous, since they were not seeking prominence. (John 5:41) Stokey |