Results 21 - 40 of 72
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Results from: Notes Author: benjamite Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | benjamite | 36676 | ||
Meaningless? I neither said nor implied that these verses are meaningless. I have answered your question about the contribution of the women. If you'll remember, I said,"Can women teach other women? Yes. From Titus 2:3-5, 'Older women likewise are to be reverent in their behavior, not malicious gossips nor enslaved to much wine, teaching what is good, so that they may encourage the young women to love their husbands, to love their children, to be sensible, pure, workers at home, kind, being subject to their own husbands, so that the word of God will not be dishonored.'" I'm going to answer your other post here, so we can tie everything together. When we look at meetings of the Church in the New Testament, we see that, "They were continually devoting themselves to the apostles' teaching and to fellowship, to the breaking of bread and to prayer." (Acts 2:42 NASB) The meetings of the church consist of at least one of these four things. You seem to imply, here, that everybody contributes (or should contribute) verbally all the time. That is clearly not Biblical. If you haven't read chapters 11-14 of 1 Corinthians, at least read 14:26-40. For the sake of brevity, here, I close with verse 40, "But all things must be done properly and in an orderly manner." |
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22 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | benjamite | 36595 | ||
If your question is "Do women have spiritual gifts?" My answer is "yes". Remember, from my first post, the Greek word for men is the generic word for men - anthropos (you might recognize it in the word "anthropology" (had Paul wanted to mean only males, he would have used a form of the word "aner" - explicitly "male", "man", or "husband" and not "female", "woman", or "wife"). If your question is, "Should the gifts that are given be used anywhere and at anytime?" My answer (for either gender) is no. In an earlier post, I believe I gave Scripture references of 1 Corinthians 11 and 14. Actually, a better response would have been 1 Corinthians 11-14. If you truly want to know more about how the gifts are to be used, read those four chapters. Please don't get me wrong. I want to help your understanding of scripture as much as I can, and will continue to do so if I am able. Perhaps if you read it for yourself, the Lord is probably able to do something more than what I'm capable of doing here. |
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23 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | benjamite | 36538 | ||
We aren't talking about what happens outside the church. You asked about women being pastors. I assumed you meant inside the church. If you'll notice the top paragraph in the note you responded to, you'll see that I qualified my response, limiting it to a "normal 'mixed' church gathering ([meaning] both men and women)". Christ is the Head of the Church. What I say, doesn't matter. What He says, does. |
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24 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | benjamite | 36533 | ||
I'm not sure I understand your question. You asked me about a Biblical definition of "pastor". As far as the Greek word is concerned, there is no difference between a pastor or a shepherd- it is the same word. One tends a flock of sheep, the other tends a flock of people (the church). In usage, all instances except for the one in Eph 4:11, it is translated "shepherd" - with the qualification that Jesus refers to himself, and is refered to as the Shepherd or the Good Shepherd - John 10 and elsewhere. Did I answer your question? |
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25 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | benjamite | 36151 | ||
We need to define our terms - "pastors" and "teachers". If you mean someone who teaches or shepherds a normal "mixed" church gathering (both men and women), the Bible explicitly says "No" - 1 Timothy 2:12, 1 Cor 14:34. As you see from my other post, "Pastor" is only used once in the New Testament - Eph 4:11. The word translated "pastor" is the greek word poimen - found 18 times in the New Testament and is usually translated "shepherd" (see Luke 2, John 10, and elsewhere). Can women teach other women? Yes. From Titus 2:3-5, "Older women likewise are to be reverent in their behavior, not malicious gossips nor enslaved to much wine, teaching what is good, so that they may encourage the young women to love their husbands, to love their children, to be sensible, pure, workers at home, kind, being subject to their own husbands, so that the word of God will not be dishonored." In Him, Benjamite |
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26 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | benjamite | 36146 | ||
"Pastor" is only used once in the New Testament Eph 4:11, however, the word translated "pastor" is the greek word poimen - found 18 times in the New Testament and is usually translated "shepherd" (see Luke 2, John 10, and elsewhere). |
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27 | What does men in Eph. 4:8 mean? | Eph 4:8 | benjamite | 35939 | ||
Granted. It is elsewhere, though. Not as far as who gets (or who is) what gift, but how the gifts are used. The original question was about whether women can be pastors. My point was that this verse, based on the other scriptural evidence, does not give license to do so. 1 Cor 14:40 "But all things must be done properly and in an orderly manner." In Him, Benjamite |
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28 | Where is this king from? | Dan 11:36 | benjamite | 35906 | ||
Okay, Thanks. Benjamite |
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29 | Definition of a bible bully | 1 Cor 13:4 | benjamite | 35872 | ||
Brother Eagle One, I have only been on this planet for two years longer than you've been saved, but I have noticed that Christians are human beings. We cannot get around it. Often, we say and do things that are in character with our sinful human nature but are way out of character with the Name by which we are called. I am definitely no exception. As you might be able to tell from some of my posts, there are some that I definitely should not have written. This may, and probably will, happen again. "Knowledge makes arrogant..." (1 Cor 8:1). I don't like this, but I have to deal with it. At the same time, I don't wish to be judged on the basis of those posts I should not have written, but some might do so. Realizing that I am just as prone as others to saying things that I shouldn't makes it easier to talk with people on the forum. It helps me to roll with the punches, and I try to be more understanding towards them and more cautious now in my own posts/responses than I was. Keep posting, Benjamite |
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30 | Where is this king from? | Dan 11:36 | benjamite | 35783 | ||
Fine, but that is not what I meant. There are those (I believe it was in the Jerome Biblical Commentary) who describe 40-45 as referring to Antiochus IV, but point out that it didn't take place (and also that this "author" of Daniel 11 was wrong about what would happen to Antiochus). Given that some see these verses as referring to both Antiochus and/or the Antichrist, I was allowing for these "kings" as opposed to just the Antichrist "king", I do, however, see from 36 onward as referring just to the Antichrist. | ||||||
31 | Where is this king from? | Dan 11:36 | benjamite | 35763 | ||
So basically, you are saying, in essence, that the king here, and in verse 40, is a king (or "are kings") of the North. |
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32 | Where is this king from? | Dan 11:36 | benjamite | 35762 | ||
Okay, can I ask you to explain further? I mean are you taking Russia to be "the kingdom of the North"? Are you taking the Antichrist to be a third ruler? (outside of the kingdoms of the North and the South.) What verses would you look at? | ||||||
33 | Where are the people of Dan 11:32 in NT? | Dan 11:32 | benjamite | 35217 | ||
I accept what you are saying and will comment on this point "Premillennialists maintain that neither Antiochus Epiphanes nor the Romans under Titus in A.D. 70 AD exhausted Daniel's prophecy, which still awaits fulfillment." I would say that the part from 11:36 onward awaits fulfillment. By the way, three (maybe all four) of the references I cited are, in fact, pre-mil - Ryrie, Walvoord, and Gaebelein. Gesundheit, Benjamite |
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34 | Where are the people of Dan 11:32 in NT? | Dan 11:32 | benjamite | 35197 | ||
This is a short follow up to my last response. How do we know that in v. 21 it is the antichrist who is called a "vile person" (KJV) or "despicable person" (NASB)? Why must this refer to him and not Antiochus IV? You say that it is one of twelve titles given to the Antichrist, where else is this title given to him? (Assuming that I see "despicable" or "vile" as referring to Antiochus IV Epiphanes in this verse.) A follow up to that question is, must the Antichrist have 12 titles? | ||||||
35 | Where are the people of Dan 11:32 in NT? | Dan 11:32 | benjamite | 35189 | ||
Blessings Makarios, I copied and pasted much of my response to "Love Fountain". Charles C. Ryrie, in his Study Bible - Antiochus through v. 35, and then Antichrist 36ff (notes on Dan 11:21-35, and 36-45) Of v. 32, 33 - "Some Jews resisted [Antiochus] and were martyred". Jaimeson, Fausset, and Brown, in "Commentary on the Whole Bible", on Dan 11:21ff, and 36ff, basically says the same. (Although, they say of v. 36ff, "The willful king here, though primarily Antiochus, is antitypically and mainly Antichrist." The people of verse 32-33 are "the Maccabees and their followers". A.C. Gaebelein, in his commentary "The Prophet Daniel: A Key to the Visions and Prophecies of the Book of Daniel" (19th edition), says, "While there is no difficulty to prove the historical fulfillment of verses 2-35 it is impossible to locate anything in history which corresponds to verses 36-45." (p. 179-180) Of v. 32ff, "This has reference to the noble Maccabees. There was also suffering and persecution." John F. Walvoord, in "Daniel: the Key to Prophetic Revelation" (c. 1971, 1989 Moody Bible Institute), sees 11:21-35 as referring to Antiochus IV, followed by 11:36ff as referring to the Antichrist (see notes on 11:21-23 and 11:36). Of verse 32, he says, "The continued opposition of Antiochus to the Jewish faith is prophesied in verse 32, indicating how he attempts to corrupt them; but the strong reaction of the Jewish people is indicated in the expression 'but the people that do know their God shall be strong, and do exploits.'" I hope you don't mind "4 for the price of 2" - I had a little more time to do research for my response. Benjamite |
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36 | Where are the people of Dan 11:32 in NT? | Dan 11:32 | benjamite | 35186 | ||
Charles C. Ryrie, in his Study Bible - Antiochus through v. 35, and then Antichrist 36ff (notes on Dan 11:21-35, and 36-45) Of v. 32, 33 - "Some Jews resisted [Antiochus] and were martyred". Jaimeson, Fausset, and Brown, in "Commentary on the Whole Bible", on Dan 11:21ff, and 36ff, basically says the same. (Although, they say of v. 36ff, "The willful king here, though primarily Antiochus, is antitypically and mainly Antichrist." The people of verse 32-33 are "the Maccabees and their followers". A.C. Gaebelein, in his commentary "The Prophet Daniel: A Key to the Visions and Prophecies of the Book of Daniel" (19th edition), says, "While there is no difficulty to prove the historical fulfillment of verses 2-35 it is impossible to locate anything in history which corresponds to verses 36-45." (p. 179-180) Of v. 32ff, "This has reference to the noble Maccabees. There was also suffering and persecution." John F. Walvoord, in "Daniel: the Key to Prophetic Revelation" (c. 1971, 1989 Moody Bible Institute), sees 11:21-35 as referring to Antiochus IV, followed by 11:36ff as referring to the Antichrist (see notes on 11:21-23 and 11:36). Of verse 32, he says, "The continued opposition of Antiochus to the Jewish faith is prophesied in verse 32, indicating how he attempts to corrupt them; but the strong reaction of the Jewish people is indicated in the expression 'but the people that do know their God shall be strong, and do exploits.'" I hope you don't mind "4 for the price of 2" - I had a little more time to do research for my response. Who are the "many scholars" that believe the split is in v. 31? In Him, Benjamite |
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37 | Where are the people of Dan 11:32 in NT? | Dan 11:32 | benjamite | 35150 | ||
Did you miss this statement? "11:36 then begins the description of the Antichrist's career." This is still future from OUR standpoint (as the rest of it was also future from Daniel's). This actually continues through the end of the chapter, and is prophetic, in relations to the end time. The reason why I mentioned the commentaries is because there are so many different viewpoints regarding Daniel's prophecies. I have not checked all the commentaries (which should be obvious), but most of the more reliable ones which I have read agree on the history so accurately depicted in Daniel (but written several hundred years beforehand). The "history" part - from our standpoint - continues up through 11:35. Benjamite |
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38 | Is Limited Atonement Bibical? | NT general Archive 1 | benjamite | 34917 | ||
Hi Zach, I agree with you about the Limited Atonement (and therefore won't take much time here). I do have a couple of quick questions. In Luke 14:23, what does it mean to "compel"? How are we to understand John 6:44-45, 64-65? In Him, Benjamite |
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39 | Is Limited Atonement Bibical? | NT general Archive 1 | benjamite | 34823 | ||
Since you reject all but point 1, since according to Romans 3:10ff, nobody is righteous, nobody seeks after God, how then is anybody saved? In Him, Benjamite |
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40 | Is Limited Atonement Bibical? | NT general Archive 1 | benjamite | 34820 | ||
Dear John, I admit, I have not read all the postings yet, but I assure you, I am not confused by the term. To quote James White, (in his defense of Calvinism, "The Potter's Freedom"), Limited Atonement says that, "The intention of Christ in His cross-work was to save His people specifically. Therefore, Christ's sacrifice is perfect and complete, for it actually accomplishes perfect redemption." I strongly disagree with the premise. Christ did die for, and was good enough to save, everybody - the world. 1 John 2:2 "propitiation for the sins of the whole world" Romans 5:6 "Christ died for the ungodly (all of them)." Romans 5:8 may personalize this, but 5:6 says for "the ungodly" without qualification. John 3:16 "God so loved the world, that whosoever..." Hebrews 2:9 "He might taste death for everyone" 2 Peter 2:1 speaks of false prophets, "denying the Master who bought them" In Him, Benjamite |
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