Results 21 - 40 of 53
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: reformedreader Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | You can lose your salvation | Luke 23:26 | reformedreader | 3710 | ||
Chucky1146, While it is true that Jesus said, "If you abide in me I will abide in you", it is not true that Jesus was referring to one losing their salvation. And it is also true that Jesus said, "This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day."(John 6:39) Now, if we can make "I lose nothing" equal to "I lose some", then we can make "if you abide in me I will abide in you" mean you can lose your salvation. Can we do that? Sam Hughey |
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22 | Is Interracial marriage Bible supported? | 2 Corinthians | reformedreader | 3705 | ||
Nolan, This is an excellent question that has caused many Christians to create great harm to others with unbiblical advice. The only forbidding we have from God in regards to marriage is found in 2 Cor.6:14. We are not to marry unbelievers and I think it could also be proven that we should avoid marrying those with major theological differences than our own. God does not forbid us from marrying anyone on the basis of race. Sam Hughey |
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23 | Conscience? | Matt 28:20 | reformedreader | 3560 | ||
charis, I apologize for the name exchange. My eyes must have been looking where my brain was not thinking. When you use the phrase "acceptable to God" be careful. I think I know what you mean but it can be misunderstood. Some might take that to mean God accepts us on the grounds of what we do. I know, I've had some to accuse me of implying that. However, much like the worship of the priests of the Old Testament, the worship of the priests of the New Testament must also be acceptable by God. This is very strange to many Christians who think worship is just doing something religious. God has not changed His standard for worship and ours must be done so as to be acceptable by God, otherwise, we worship in vain. Our prayers will be attended to by God only if we approach God in the same manner as the Old Testament priests. We must approach Him on the grounds of a clean heart, meaning our sins must be confessed. We must approach the throne of God in no less a manner of holiness than our Old Testament priest equivalents. Yes, I believe the term 'conscience' is a good word for the natural ability to know right from wrong. But don't forget, just because we all have a conscience doesn't mean we all come to salvation. "These Commandments", as you call them, need to be sharply defined. Antinomianism is rapant in most Arminian congregations, so laws, to some extent, would not mean anything to them. Do God's laws divide? You bet they do. They divide the obedient from the disobedient. They divide the learned from the unlearned. You are absolutely correct that many "law" questions would undermine the traditions of men. Antinomians would disagree with you as well as those that support New Covenant Theology. If you would like to discuss this further, these "laws" need to be defined so we can be called legalists and grace rejecters. (know what I mean) Sam Hughey |
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24 | Commandments absolute? | Matt 28:20 | reformedreader | 3510 | ||
Chris, You have asked a very major question not many Christians are willing to discuss. There is really only one way to view what our Lord stated. Whatever He taught the Apostles and other followers, they are lawful commands from God Himself. Therefore, since they have not been rescinded anywhere else in the New Testament, they are still binding on all New Testament believers today. They are set in stone in the respect that they are solidly God's law for us to obey. They are set into the hearts of all believers in the respect they are the believers Christian duty and obedience from a loving heart for their Lord. "Are all commandments knowable by man"? No, not all. But that does not exclude any from being known by all men. Paul said all men are without excuse for all men have "a" knowledge of God. "A" knowledge of God is not a salvific knowledge, in that it is not the calling of God to receive salvation. Even though it is not a salvific knowledge, it is still "a" knowledge that God exists and they are without excuse. From what are they without excuse? Their sins. All men are endowed with the natural ability to know not only that there is a right and wrong, but also what that right and wrong is. God requires all men everywhere to obey His laws. Therefore, all men everywhere are without excuse when they sin for all have sinned and failed to glorify God. Sam Hughey |
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25 | God can use woman in the ministry? | Gal 3:28 | reformedreader | 3265 | ||
dpettway22, Galatians 3:28 is referencing superiority standing within the realm of salvation which none have. We are all saved equally and have an equal standing in the Kingdom of God. A Jew does not have any greater position simply because he is a Jew. The same goes for Gentiles over Jews, men over women or women over men. It does not reference either a right or forbidding for women to be involved with a ministry. There are other scriptures that clearly cover that isse. Sam Hughey |
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26 | What happens to Non-Christians? | John 14:6 | reformedreader | 3261 | ||
TruthSeeker, Revelation 20:15 And if anyone's name was not found written in the book of life, he was thrown into the lake of fire. (NASB) Now, this is what God says, but you will receive slightly different answers from other Christians ranging from God saves everybody who doesn't have a chance to be saved all the way to nobody really knows for sure. You decide who and what is for a TruthSeeker. Sam Hughey |
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27 | lets stick to original text! | Luke 24:1 | reformedreader | 3201 | ||
eddy, Ok, you make a good point of sticking to the original text. However, can you, or anyone responding to your question, actually produce the "original" text here so we may observe it? If you could direct me to the manuscript document used by the NASB translators to translate the term "first day", we could better judge how to answer your question. I will certainly start looking. Sam Hughey |
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28 | What was the Lord's expectation? | Bible general Archive 1 | reformedreader | 3186 | ||
Mike, Thanks Mike for two refreshing details; 1. A real name and 2. "I do however believe for us to say that we are that generation would be presumptuous at best". Every generation for the past 2000 years has believed in an imminent return of Christ, signs describing it is about to happen and that they were the rapture generation. They all share one thing in common which is; "They were all wrong"! Presumptuous belief is not honoring to God and does little to aid our hermeneutical abilities and has caused Christians to adopt an attitude of believing in a doomed and defeated church. Nothing can be further from the truth of our Lord's own words when He stated that not even the powers of hell can prevail against His church. Christ did not die to present a defeated church to His Father, He died to present a glorious and victorious church to His Father. If Christians have an attitude of defeat, it is found only in their own hearts. This is the main reason why a Biblical Reformation of thought and study are so seriously needed in the body of Christ as never before. Sam Hughey |
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29 | Is incomplete temptation real temptation | Heb 4:15 | reformedreader | 3143 | ||
RWC, To your statement, "If Jesus' divine nature prevents His human nature from being "tempted to the point of sin," then would it not also prevent Him from being truly tempted at all"?, Why must that be the logical conclusion? God does not need to eat, sleep or feel physical pain, etc, yet Jesus did while in His humanity. The Divinity of Jesus is not the same as was His humanity, therefore, it is not necessarily logical to "assume" Jesus should have not been tempted at all. Sam Hughey |
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30 | Must Christians keep the Sabbath today? | Ex 20:8 | reformedreader | 3141 | ||
JVH0212, Great question. However, it is not such a simple one. For instance, the word Sabbath does not always mean the same thing. Sabbath is used in different ways and for different reasons. Not all Sabbath laws pertain to the same word "Sabbath" everytime it is used. We would first need to be certain we are using the correct word in its proper context and able to correctly define the differences. Sam Hughey |
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31 | Salvation comes by asking for it. | John 3:3 | reformedreader | 3078 | ||
Chucky1146, What if you can't ask for salvation? Sam Hughey |
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32 | Protestantism challenged? | Matt 18:17 | reformedreader | 3065 | ||
JMR, How does Matthew 18:17 challenge Protestantism? Sam Hughey |
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33 | double predestination con | Rom 5:12 | reformedreader | 3047 | ||
CHESTYFIRE, Actually, the term "double-predestination" is more mistunderstood than understood. For the most part it refers to God predetermining who would go to heaven and who would go to hell. The "double" take on this is that God intentionally purposed some men to spend eternity in hell. As a Calvinist, I do not accept double-predestination as it has been erroneously taught by other Calvinists. They are wrong and I have stated so many times. Romans 5:12 clearly states that "ALL" men have sinned and have acquired the death penalty for Adam's likeness. We are all predestined to spend eternity in hell because of the fall unless we are saved by God's grace before our physical death. I do, however, believe that God elected a chosen race before the foundation of the world who would be called to receive salvation in the process of human time and history who would be shown His mercy and grace while not calling others. This does not negate their deserving hell anymore or less than those who are not called. All men are guilty and have sinned and fail to glorify God. All men are deserving eternal punishment and it is only by God's grace that any are saved. |
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34 | I CAME TO FULFILL THE LAW | Matt 5:17 | reformedreader | 2991 | ||
PYLE, I really tried to stay away from this one, but I just couldn't do it. Your question is answered in the verse you quoted. Christ clearly and unambiguously stated that His purpose for coming was "NOT" to bring an end to the law or the Prophets. Abolish and fulfill do not mean the same thing. The term "age of grace" is not a biblical term for grace has existed since before the foundation of the world. Law has also existed since eternity past. Both are the essence and utmost characteristics of God Himself. There has never been a time on earth where both Law and Grace have not existed. The term "law" does not always refer to the Law of Moses and the Law of Moses does not always refer to "only" the ceremonial or Levitical portions of that law. To say that Christ did not come to abolish the law, but then say Christ abolished the law is a contradiction and does not honor what our Lord truly stated. Our Lord taught throughout the Gospels directly from the Law of Moses. It was the Pharisaical distortions of the law that Christ condemned and not the law itself. Sam Hughey |
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35 | Jesus at God's Right Hand. | Mark 16:19 | reformedreader | 2981 | ||
bcbloyd, I think you are right on the money, so to speak. As others have and will point out though, God does not have hands since He is a Spirit. The Bible often uses metaphorical language when describing God. God does this so we may better understand the impact and force of His words in our lives. Sam Hughey |
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36 | Stars do cease to exist...Isa 40:26? | Is 40:26 | reformedreader | 2974 | ||
userdoe211, How do you know Isaiah is talking about literal stars in the universe? Isaiah, and most of the Old Testament, uses metaphorical language. Psalms 84:11 says God is a "sun", Malachi 4:2 says the "sun of righteousness" will rise with healing in its wings. Surely the word "sun" is used literally but it is also surely used in a symbolic or metaphorical sense. What in Isa. 40:26 forces us to understand it in a literal sense only? Sam Hughey |
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37 | Can a deacon drink wine with dinner? | 1 Tim 3:3 | reformedreader | 2961 | ||
rwash, The qualifications for a Deacon in 1 Tim. 3:3 do not forbid him from drinking wine, it only disqualifies him if he is an abuser (addicted) to wine. "When" one has a glass of wine I think to be irrelavent. "Why" one desires a glass of wine I think to be very relavent. I would also think that any church who raises its standards above that of the clear and unambiguous testimony of Holy Scripture has more with which to be concerned than a Deacon who has an occassional glass of wine. Keeping the law is not the same as re-creating the law, which is what the Pharisees did and for what Christ condemned them. Sam Hughey |
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38 | Jesus took all the world's sins on Him? | 1 John 2:2 | reformedreader | 2949 | ||
petra, Would you explain "kessu" for the sake of those who do not know so responding might be made easier? Sam Hughey |
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39 | Aren't pictures wrong? | Acts 17:29 | reformedreader | 2948 | ||
P-J, What it says it not to think that the Divine Nature is like gold or silver or stone, etc. It does not forbid us from having pictures or ornaments made of gold, silver or stone. The command is to not compare things made by man with the one who made man. However, I think we are committing sin should we worship, as God or in the place of God, these images which would violate the 1st and 2nd commandments. The 1st and 2nd commandments forbid our creating images for the purpose of worship. Sam Hughey |
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40 | Greek has no "first day" in its text? | Luke 24:1 | reformedreader | 2943 | ||
Greek uses the word "mia" which refers to first. Translating Greek is not as simple as making it a word for word equivalent with the English language. Words in one language do not always equal what is used or how it is used in another's language. Mia refers to the "first" of the week. Most of the manuscripts used for translation also use the term "sabbaton" which means "Sabbath", which also refers to the first day of the week. So, it is translated as "on the Sabbath, the first day of the week". I would also like to hear from others who have better Greek knowledge. Sam Hughey |
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