Results 181 - 200 of 1251
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Results from: Notes Author: mark d seyler Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
181 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | mark d seyler | 178748 | ||
Hi Edwin, I do believe that the Greek New Testament was inspired, not just the general ideas expresses, but the specific words and word forms used, by the Holy Spirit. This is, as you have also said, true of the autographs, but not so of the copies and translations. I will be happy to look at the passages you have asked me about. Matthew 26:64 Jesus said to him, You said it. I tell you more. From this time you shall see the Son of Man sitting off the right hand of power, and coming on the clouds of the heaven. Mark 14:62 And Jesus said, I AM! And you will see the Son of Man sitting off the right hand of power, and coming with the clouds of the heaven. Luke 22:67-69 If you are the Christ, tell us. And He said to them, If I tell you, you will in no way believe. And also if I ask, in no way will you answer Me, or let Me go. From now on the Son of Man will be sitting at the right of the power of God. And they all said, Then are you the Son of God? And He said to them, You say it, because I AM! The chief priests had asked Jesus if He was the Christ, the Son of the Blessed. He answered them saying all of these things. “If I tell you, you will not believe, and if I ask, you will not answer or let me go.” “You say it, because I AM.” “After this you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the power of God, and coming on the clouds of heaven.” While there are minor differences in word order, and not every account is a full account, I don’t see any conflicts. The only account that has timing indicators is Luke’s, as he records a conversation. Matthew and Mark record their question, and Jesus’ response. Mark, for instance, says Jesus said these things, and I believe He did. Mark doesn’t say that this was all Jesus said. If he had written that, there would be a conflict. He doesn’t say that Jesus first said “I AM”, and then said the rest. He simply says Jesus said these things. So I don’t see a conflict with these passages, just that you can gain a greater sense of what happened there that day by reading all the accounts. Matthew 20:20 Then the mother of the sons of Zebedee came near to Him, along with her sons, worshipping, and asking something from Him. Mark 10:35 And coming up to Him, James and John, the sons of Zebedee, said, Teacher, we desire that whatever we may ask You would do for us. Now, this may seem foolish to you, but this is how I approach Scripture. What prevents both of these from being true? When Jesus responded to their question, He addressed His remarks to the sons: Matthew 20:22 But answering, Jesus said, You do not know what you ask. Are you able to drink the cup which I am about to drink, and to be baptized with the baptism with which I am to be baptized? They said to Him, We are able. Mark 10:38 But Jesus said to them, You do not know what you ask. Are you able to drink the cup which I drink, and to be baptized with the baptism I am baptized with? I don’t doubt but that James, John, and Mom were all in agreement her, and the may well have each voiced the same request. All three come up asking Jesus for something, and He says to them all, “what do you want me to do?” I don’t see a conflict here either. Regarding the inscription posted on the cross: Mat 27:37 And they put up over His head His charge, it having been written: THIS IS JESUS, THE KING OF THE JEWS. Mar 15:26 And the inscription of His charge was written over Him, THE KING OF THE JEWS. Luk 23:38 And also an inscription was written over Him, in Greek and Latin and Hebrew letters: THIS IS THE KING OF THE JEWS. Joh 19:19 And Pilate also wrote a title and put it on the cross. And having been written, it was: JESUS THE NAZARENE, THE KING OF THE JEWS. Would not the inscription then have read “This is Jesus the Nazarene, the King of the Jews”? If it had, then each account is correct. So this is how I approach such things. I begin with the presupposition that each is true, and then reconstruct the scene using what each has told us. Love in Christ, Mark |
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182 | verse explains nonChrist knowing savior | 2 Cor 5:15 | mark d seyler | 178669 | ||
Hi Paul, Rather than just give us your own claims, please share with us those Scriptures that teach these things. I don't beleive they exist. The Bible says: Eph 2:1 And you were dead in your trespasses and sins, Eph 2:2 in which you formerly walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, of the spirit that is now working in the sons of disobedience. Eph 2:3 Among them we too all formerly lived in the lusts of our flesh, indulging the desires of the flesh and of the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, even as the rest. Eph 2:4 But God, being rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us, Eph 2:5 even when we were dead in our transgressions, made us alive together with Christ (by grace you have been saved), You were dead, but God has made you alive. You say that in death is the resurrection, yes that's true, but only for the redeemed. Those who have not been redeemed, who are still facing the result of their sin, are lost, there is no resurrection for them, only eternal death. Sin is not to be tolerated, condoned, looked on as good, or any such thing. The least sin you can imagine was sufficiant to separate you, or me, from God forever. But He died to pay for it, so that we might live. I will never waver from that truth. Love in Christ, Mark |
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183 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | mark d seyler | 178666 | ||
Hi Edwin, We could talk about the differences in how the apostles recorded the sign above Jesus' head, and these other things, and I will do that with you if you wish, but before we do that, I would like to know from you: Do you believe that the Greek New Testament was inspired by the Holy Spirit, and as such, is an accurate record of what happened, and what Jesus said, and taught? Love in Christ, Mark |
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184 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | mark d seyler | 178634 | ||
Hi Edwin, We accept the Greek New Testament to be the divinely inspired Word of God. Even if Jesus gave the original Sermon on the Mount in Aramaic, or Hebrew, nonetheless, it is the Greek record that was given to us by the Holy Spirit. Therefore, we consider the Greek words to be authoritative. Rather than believing that Jesus spoke something different than Matthew recorded, and therefore Matthew's record is somehow deficient, I accept Matthew's record, in Greek, to be correct and accurate, and that if Jesus did speak these things in another language, that Matthew, as inspired by the Holy Spirit, gave the correct teaching in the Greek language. I hope this helps to clarify the matter. Love in Christ, Mark |
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185 | verse explains nonChrist knowing savior | 2 Cor 5:15 | mark d seyler | 178630 | ||
Hi Paul, As far as I can tell from reading the Bible, sin is death, and sin is what Jesus died to save us from. Sin is not part of the path to knowing God. I do not consider the line of thinking which you are presenting to resemble any true Biblical concept, and in fact, seems to directly fly in the face of much that is written. The sinner has not "gained vital information", the sinner is dead. Unless Jesus saves that sinner, the sinner remains dead. When Jesus saves a sinner, He tells them, "leave your sin, and do not return to it. Go and sin no more." Love in Christ, Mark |
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186 | verse explains nonChrist knowing savior | 2 Cor 5:15 | mark d seyler | 178603 | ||
Hi Paul, As I am sure you already know, Hebrew is a very conceptual language in that its letters are pictorial, and as such, relies more on context than many other languages to understand the correct meaning. I myself rely heavily upon the Hebrew scholars, as my grasp of Hebrew is extremely limited, but this I know - the Bible is consistant throughout, and what is true in clear passages is equally true in difficult passages. You have stated that "Jesus died not for our sins but for THE SIN of man." (sic) The Bible says in 1 Cor 15:3 "For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;" this is specific, "our", yours and mine, "sins", indefinite plural, all of each of our sins. You wrote, "You can no longer be fined for speeding if the speed limit is removed." Jesus said, (Matthew 5:17-19) "Do not think that I came to annul the Law or the Prophets; I did not come to annul, but to fulfill. Truly I say to you, Until the heaven and the earth pass away, in no way shall one iota or one point pass away from the Law until all comes to pass. Therefore, whoever relaxes one of these commandments, the least, and shall teach men so, he shall be called least in the kingdom of Heaven. But whoever does and teaches them, this one shall be called great in the kingdom of Heaven." Christ did not remove the penalty for breaking God's law, He paid it for us. There is a huge difference. We can become God's children because we died in Christ. Death is the penalty of sin, so we had to die. It's our blessing that we are able to die in His death, so that the curse was upon Him and not on us. Sin is by definition what is not of God. Sin, "hamartia", is to miss the target. "For all have sinned and fallen short of God's glory." Count me among the "legalistic orthodoxy" that calls sin sin. And sin does not help us. Sin kills. Love in Christ, Mark |
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187 | How to Discern a Servant of God | Acts 5:15 | mark d seyler | 178600 | ||
There have been several posts regarding Kathryn Kuhlman that I would like to respond to. If we are to discuss another person, and especially someone not present with us, I just think there are certain ways to go about it. For one thing, I would find any number of quotes both for and against Kathryn Kuhlman, claiming false healings, claiming true healings, claiming all sorts of things. But that is true of most public figures - they have their detractors and supporters. Can this for the basis for our conclusions on people? What seems to me to be the Biblical way to discern regarding a person is to compare what they do and what they teach with Scripture. Would you agree? Now, I know right off the bat, that if someone believes it is impossible that a person could be used to heal large numbers of people in the modern day, then they would quickly conclude that Kathryn Kuhlman's ministry was not Biblical. For the person who believes that this is possible, then it remains to determine if her ministry was Biblical or not. As I scour the web looking at her teaching, not as reported by others, but direct quotes only, I do not find teaching that is unscriptural. Now, this is not to say that its not there, just that I haven't seen it. But this is a strong area to look at to me. If she teaches what is unscriptural, then that's a big red flag. I would be interested if anyone is aware of any unscriptural teaching she gave. Now, she has been compared to Benny Hinn, and its easy to find where Benny Hinn claims to have gotten his start from seeing Kathryn kuhlman. But its equally easy to find, and I have heard it from his lips, teaching that is in clear contradiction to Scripture. So in this way I do not see that she compares to Benny Hinn. The other part of the equation is what she does. In this way, at least so far as appearance goes, Benny Hinn seems to copy her. Kathryn Kuhlman's claim was that people would be healed at her meetings from the sovereign touch of God. Again, some believe that doesn't happen today. Others, who accept modern day healings, think that it wouldn't happen that way. Steve, and many others as well, have pointed out that Kathryn did not make a ministry of visiting hospitals to clear out the wards. But did the apostles? Now, when I read the Acts of the Apostles, I do not find them visiting hospitals, or walking through disaster zones. I find them walking down the street, or going into crowded areas, and healing people. People would line the sidewalks so Peter's shadow would fall on them. Others would pass around Paul's sweatband to be healed. Imagine if someone was doing that today! Most people would probibly say what a crock it was, yet that is what happened in NT times. Do we ever read of Jesus or the apostles visiting a leper colony? Not to my recollection. What we do read is that people came to them, or they healed people wherever they happened to be. Now, let me be clear - I am not saying that I believe or disbelieve in what Kathryn Kuhlman was doing. I wish to examine her ministry in light of Scripture, as well as understand how we are to go about doing that. There is one thing about her ministry I have a huge problem with, and that is this "slaying in the spirit" business. I find no mention of that in Scripture period. Its seems to have been a regular component of her process, yet there is no teaching, demonstration, or example of it in Scripture. It also seems that she lived a lavish lifestyle, which is between her and God, as having nice things is not declared sinful, but it does seem contrary to having the servant's heart. This brings up the issue of judging another man's servant. I have had a difficult time verifying if the churches, clinics, and so forth that the Kathryn Kuhlman Foundation claims were built (dozens, according to them) were actually built. This would be meaningful to me to know. Benny Hinn, again, claimed to have done all these great works, churches, schools, orphanages, which proved fraudulent. So at this point, I do not have a solid opinion on Kathryn Kuhlman. I do have some questions about her ministry. But I am more interested in your understanding of how we are to Biblically judge someone. Am I on the right track here? Do you agree or disagree? Love in Christ, Mark |
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188 | Free will and predestination co-exist? | Rom 8:29 | mark d seyler | 178599 | ||
Hi Edwin, That was an unexpected answer! I find you to be refreshingly challenging! I had in mind such verses as: Rom 8:1 There is therefore now no condemnation to those in Christ Jesus, who do not walk according to flesh, but according to Spirit. While we once were "by nature, children of wrath, even as the rest," (Eph 2:3), now that we are "in Christ", there is now no condemnation. There was a time before we were "in Christ", in which we were under God's righteous condemnation. 2Co 5:17 So that if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation; the old things have passed away; behold, all things have become new! Once we were dead in trespasses and sins. Now we are alive, having been born again, born of God. If anyone is "in Christ", he is a new creation. If we were "in Christ" before the foundation of the world, then when was it that we were dead in our trespasses and sins? It seems to me that there was a time when we were dead in sins, before we were in Christ, then, when we became "in Christ", this involved re-birth, and we became a new creation. This is my understanding. What is your understanding of these verses? Love in Christ, Mark |
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189 | Free will and predestination co-exist? | Rom 8:29 | mark d seyler | 178558 | ||
Hi ZtheBerean, What I actually said was: "I agree with you in priciple that it is by the grace of God that we are made able to be obedient to faith." Not that we are "made to be obedient to faith." I believe the term commonly used to describe my understanding is "prevenient grace", although I do not claim all of the associations you will find with this term if you google it. This is the essence of Romans 10:9: Rom 10:6 But the righteousness based on faith speaks as follows: "DO NOT SAY IN YOUR HEART, 'WHO WILL ASCEND INTO HEAVEN?' (that is, to bring Christ down), Rom 10:7 or 'WHO WILL DESCEND INTO THE ABYSS?' (that is, to bring Christ up from the dead)." Rom 10:8 But what does it say? "THE WORD IS NEAR YOU, IN YOUR MOUTH AND IN YOUR HEART"--that is, the word of faith which we are preaching, Rom 10:9 that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved; You can't reach up into heaven to pull Christ down to you. You can't reach into the grave - this isn't by your power. But God has brought salvation to you. It is as near to you as your heart is, and as your lips are. God has brought to you the message of faith, that if you believe in your heart, and confess with your mouth, you will be saved. God has brought this to you, now, just receive it as your own - confess - say the same thing as - agree with God, and believe - put your confidence in - the God Who raised Jesus from the dead will raise you - and you will be saved. My point was simply to say that the grace spoken of in Romans 1:5 which you referenced was a grace given to Paul specifically for a specific purpose. The Paul has received grace, and we have received grace, but the grace received in verse 5 was received by Paul, and it does not serve our discussion to take that out of context. Believing and Faith are the same thing (Greek Pisteuw), therefore, believing is not "obedience to the faith", it IS the faith. Also, "grace" is from "charis", and speaks of favor, or gift, while "glory" is from "doxa", which speaks of good report, or high opinion. I understand that we have a sharp disagreement over this concept. I do not wish to become involved in a protracted debate. The most important matter between us is that we both believe. Love in Christ, Mark |
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190 | Free will and predestination co-exist? | Rom 8:29 | mark d seyler | 178555 | ||
Hi Edwin, In a nutshell, everything God gives to us, He first gave to Christ, including election (Isaiah 42, for instance). As we become "in Christ", we also become recipients of all that Christ received from the Father, short of His deity. Is there anything we receive from the Father that we do not receive as a benefit of being "in Christ"? Love in Christ, Mark |
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191 | Free will and predestination co-exist? | Rom 8:29 | mark d seyler | 178554 | ||
Hi ebrain, Let's look: Eph 1:3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ, Eph 1:4 just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we would be holy and blameless before Him. In love Eph 1:5 He predestined us to adoption as sons through Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the kind intention of His will, Eph 1:6 to the praise of the glory of His grace, which He freely bestowed on us in the Beloved. This says that we have received "every spiritual blessing" - in Christ. God "chose us" - in Him (Christ). He "predestined us to adoption as sons through Jesus Christ to Himself" - a key passage. 10 times in this chapter, as Paul lists all the things that we have from God, 10 times he identifies these things as coming to us "in Christ". This is very much in keeping with Paul's opening statement, (Eph 1:3) "Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ," with which he prefaces this listing of blessings. Every spiritual blessing we have received, we have received "in Christ". So let me ask you - when do we become "in Christ"? Love in Christ, Mark |
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192 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | mark d seyler | 178551 | ||
Hi ebrain, I agree with you that the context has a strong importance in how a word is used, and if we are to understand what the speaker is saying, we have to look both at the words, the grammatical forms, and the context. In the instance of Matt 5:28, we can be crystal clear on this as Jesus was specific that this strong desire was for a woman, and that He was claiming this as adultery, the presupposition is that she is not one's wife. Blessings! Love in Christ, Mark |
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193 | Free will and predestination co-exist? | Rom 8:29 | mark d seyler | 178549 | ||
Hi Edwin, I don't believe that one can be conformed to the image of Jesus without first being saved. But then, I don't see that the Scripture teaches that to in being saved, this equals being conformed to the image of Jesus. It seems to me that the Bible teaches that this conformance is a process that happens over time. While, when I die, or am translated by rapture, it will complete all at once, until then, I am in a process of sanctification. Is this your understanding? Love in Christ, Mark |
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194 | Free will and predestination co-exist? | Rom 8:29 | mark d seyler | 178540 | ||
Hi ZtheBerean, Thank you for your gracious reply! You have raised some interesting points, and I would like to look at the Scriptures you have referenced. You wrote: "We need to receive grace in order to be obedient to the faith (Rom 1:5)" While I agree with you in priciple that it is by the grace of God that we are made able to be obedient to faith, I think you mean this in a slightly different way than I do. But what does this verse that you have referenced say: Rom 1:4 who was declared the Son of God with power by the resurrection from the dead, according to the Spirit of holiness, Jesus Christ our Lord, Rom 1:5 through whom we have received grace and apostleship to bring about the obedience of faith among all the Gentiles for His name's sake, Rom 1:6 among whom you also are the called of Jesus Christ; This seems to me that Paul is saying that he is the one who has received grace and apostleship, for the purpose of bringing about the obedience of faith to the gentiles. So that the grace that was received was received by Paul, not the gentiles (though to be saved, and to be sanctified, I believe the gentiles do receive grace). Paul received this grace to render him able to minister to the gentiles, so this grace spoken of is not grace that was received by the gentiles to produce obedience in them. Do you agree with this? Concerning Romans 10:17, this is a plain statement, indeed, that "faith comes from hearing, and hearing by the word of Christ." But we know that not all that hear the reading of the Bible are saved, right? When you look at the entire chapter, what is Paul telling us? The Jews seek to establish their righteousness according to the Law. Christ put an end to the righteousness of the Law. The only righteousness that is available is that which comes through faith in Christ. Those who believe will be saved. But how can one believe unless they hear? How can they hear unless one is sent? (this is condensed, but check the chapter) They didn't all heed, even though they heard. But the most telling part of this chapter towards how we are saved is: Rom 10:9 that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved; Rom 10:10 for with the heart a person believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation. The word forms are very specific: "if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord, and believe in your heart that God has raised Him from the dead, you will be saved" is subjunctive. "If you confess . . . believe. . ." sets up a condition upon which the later clause "you will be saved", which is future tense, is dependant. "If you do this, you will...", "if you do not do this, you won't..." is the idea. "Confess" and "believe" are active voice verbs - these are things you must do. So while this chapter tells us that the process of salvation includes learning about salvation, the conditional aspect of salvation is not a matter of hearing the Word, else we could simply stand on the street corner reading aloud, and everyone in earshot would be redeemed. But the conditional aspect of salvation is whether or not we confess and believe according to this passage. Let me know what you think of these things. I will address your other points in another post. Love in Christ, Mark |
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195 | Joyce Meyer a woman who won'tbe quiet | 1 Cor 14:34 | mark d seyler | 178484 | ||
I am not entering this discussion to be "for or against" a person, or to take sides in what is becoming argumentative. I avoided the question because this does not edify. Love in Christ, mark |
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196 | verse explains nonChrist knowing savior | 2 Cor 5:15 | mark d seyler | 178481 | ||
Hi Paul, That's a very interesting word study of Isaiah45:7 - I can't wait to look at that myself. But I have a huge problem with your claim that God is unable to achieve His purpose without sin. It's just completely out of step with the Biblical concepts that God is Holy (Separate unto Himself), and Righteous (everything He does is right). Love in Christ, Mark |
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197 | Women speak in church? | 1 Cor 14:34 | mark d seyler | 178476 | ||
Hi Souljourner, With over 200 posts on this thread, spanning 5 years, there has not been a clear agreement reached. I see that you are recommending that the other party pray for enlightenment, and that to me is a sure sign that there is nothing new to be added to the discussion. Don't get me wrong, you give good counsel! :-) Without prayer, and the enlightment of the Holy Spirit, none of us can understand the Bible. But to simply say your opponent's mind is closed is just not good form, and does not make for a convincing argument. So may we put this one to rest again for a while? Love in Christ, Mark |
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198 | Free will and predestination co-exist? | Rom 8:29 | mark d seyler | 178472 | ||
Hi ZtheBerean, Do these verses in Romans 9 tell us how it is that certain people are saved? Paul uses the example of Esau and Isaac to say that God is free to choose. He goes on to elaborate that point saying that God is the One in control, and He has the right to make of us what He will. But what does Paul go on to say? God's criteria for choosing, as He alone has the right to set the criteria, in not those who were born in the right family, but those who have faith. Then He uses His perogative to extend salvation to those who were not born in the right family, or those who had been rejected, but its His choice, and He chooses that those who believe, even tho they were not of Abraham, they can come in too. The Scriptures are filled with references to man's choice being essential to salvation, and that God only saves those willing to be saved. Repentance always precedes salvation. We are saved through faith, not faithed through save. Love in Christ, Mark |
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199 | Free will and predestination co-exist? | Rom 8:29 | mark d seyler | 178471 | ||
Hi ebrain, I'd just like to point out that this verse doesn't actually say that we are predestined to be saved, but rather that we are predestined to be conformed to the image of Jesus. Is there a Scripture that says we are predestined to salvation? Love in Christ, Mark |
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200 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | mark d seyler | 178470 | ||
Hi ebrain, In the NT, "lust" is commonly translated from epithumio, and is, simply, strong desire. It could be the strong desire for anything. Galations 5:17 uses this same word of the conflict between the Spirit and the flesh. I hope this helps! Love in Christ, Mark |
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