Results 1221 - 1239 of 1239
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: jlhetrick Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1221 | where is scripture found, "though we see | 1 Cor 13:12 | jlhetrick | 152948 | ||
Here ya go 1Co 13:12 For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known. (KJV) Jeff |
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1222 | Quality of faith | Heb 11:7 | jlhetrick | 152847 | ||
Hi lionheart, thanks for the encouraging words. I too stand in awe at the wonderful truths revealed in the OT. I spent years mostly avoiding the OT, mostly referring to it when cross-referenced in the NT. I would like to share something. Once I had a dream, you know, one of those crazy kind of dreams that leave you emotionally burdened when you wake, like a nightmare does. I was standing on air with nothing but clouds around me and a man in animal skins stood before me. He was asking me questions as to why "he" should let me go inside. In my dream I knew there were the gates of Heaven beyond the man but I wasn't able to see them. I was feeling pretty good with my answers, you know, confident like. And then the man said. "He wants to know why you don't see fit to read all of the letter he sent you." I was speachless. Suddenly my body started moving away from the man with increasing spead and I remember straining to see the gates that I knew must be there. When I woke, I felt very burdened and in my heart I was convicted. I had read through the NT many, many times start to finish, however, I had never made an effort to read through the OT. I thank God for using my dream to convict me and point me back to His word. I think Him even more for the blessings revealed there. How much I was missing of my Lord. How much more I know Him now. I look forward every day to know Him yet more. Thanks again for the encouragment Jeff |
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1223 | Quality of faith | Heb 11:7 | jlhetrick | 152744 | ||
You wrote: "So, if I were a Jew in the OT and believed in the saving Grace of Jesus Christ I wouldn't have to keep the law?" No more so than you do as a NT believer in Christ. That is, not so far as your salvation would be/is concerned. Rom 3:28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law. We don't "have" to keep the law to be saved (then or now) but rather, choose to keep it: 1)because we know the law reflects God's standards of morality and righteousness through making us aware of sin. 2). out of gratitude and love for the God that has chosen to save us. 3) out of a holy reverence (fear) of Him who is able to destroy not only our bodies but our souls as well (Matt. 10:28). 4). out of understanding that our God is a righteous and just God and he deals with sin to include the sins of the saved (through reproof and consequences.) and the list goes on. So, as a result of being saved, it is the power of God working in us that allows us to now uphold the law. Rom 3:31 Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law. P.S. with my schedule it is very hard for me to respond in a timely manner and that is why I rarely post. I read the dialogue between you and Doc and enjoyed it as well as learned from you both. Thanks, Jeff |
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1224 | Quality of faith | Heb 11:7 | jlhetrick | 152703 | ||
Thank you Brother Doc, Whether your words are loving reproof or consenting affirmation, they are always encouraging. thanks again |
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1225 | Quality of faith | Heb 11:7 | jlhetrick | 152699 | ||
Hi terrib, I had a rather long response to your original question but hit back button to make a change and lost it all???? Anyway, I see that Brother Doc has responded but I did want to point you to something specific. As Doc pointed out, salvation comes through faith in Jesus Christ only, there is no other way to be saved. So, Refer to Gen. 6:8-9. Even before Noah believed God about the flood and was obedient in preparing the ark, he had favor with God. The bible does not tell us specifically why Noah was considered righteous and blameless "in his time" other than to say that he "walked with God". regarding the specific question in your post here, "did Noah have faith in Jesus Christ" and asking for scripture reference I offer the following: I think it is safe to assume that Noah's above mentioned righteousness and blamelessness would have been directly related to Gen. 3:14-15. I believe this to be scripture referring to the promise of the "seed" Jesus Christ through whom would come salvation from the power of satan and sin. Noah would have had this knowledge of the promise. So, where "quality" might be applied to one's faith, it would only be relevant regarding what one places his/her faith in. A faith in anything other than the promised work of Jesus Christ in old testament times (though they didn't know His name) and the finished work of Christ today, would be a faith lacking in quality (value)and insufficient for salvation. For example: Noah believing God regarding the flood was an expression of faith in that he trusted God. But this particular event of faith lacked the "qaulity" or "value" of being a saving faith in-and-of itself. So, it was not this example of Noah's expression of faith that saved his soul. I believe that this example was an example of faith that resulted in his already having a faith in the promised savior which did have the quality or value of salvation attached. One's faith need not be extraordinary, such as in the examples of Abraham, Job, and Noah, in order to be a faith with value. But rather, a simple faith in Jesus Christ who alone can redeem you. hope this helps. Jeff |
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1226 | Help with Romans 3:25b | Rom 3:25 | jlhetrick | 152674 | ||
Thanks Doc, once again you are there to assist. I don't post often but I do log in and follow along almost every day. I am always impressed with and thankful for the way you respond kindly and specifically. As a reminder, you help more than just the person you are responding to as many others are reading along. Thanks, Jeff |
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1227 | Help with Romans 3:25b | Not Specified | jlhetrick | 152666 | ||
Can someone help me understand the meaning of Romans 3:25 where Paul talks about God, "in His forbearance" leaving the sins committed beforehand unpunished? I know that "beforehand" is referring to the time before Jesus actually died and rose again. What does Paul mean that those sins were left unpunished? Is it that those sinners who offered sacrifices had their sins forgiven on a "temporary" basis (as they looked foreword in faith to Christ's coming (even though they didn't know His name and the details)? Then, the atonement for all sin (past, present, future) through Jesus Christ made the confessed sin beforehand permanently and actually atoned for? Is this accurate and/or is there more to it? | ||||||
1228 | Help with Romans 3:25b | Rom 3:25 | jlhetrick | 152672 | ||
Can someone help me understand the meaning of Romans 3:25 where Paul talks about God, "in His forbearance" leaving the sins committed beforehand unpunished? I know that "beforehand" is referring to the time before Jesus actually died and rose again. What does Paul mean that those sins were left unpunished? Is it that those sinners who offered sacrifices had their sins forgiven on a "temporary" basis (as they looked foreword in faith to Christ's coming (even though they didn't know His name and the details)? Then, the atonement for all sin (past, present, future) through Jesus Christ made the confessed sin beforehand permanently and actually atoned for? Is this accurate and/or is there more to it? | ||||||
1229 | Acts 8:37 omitted in some Bible Versions | Acts 8:37 | jlhetrick | 152598 | ||
Malley, I am not even close to being an authority on languages, translations, and specific reasons why certain things are the way they are in the various translations. Therefore, I am not necessarily trying to "correct" you as you invited someone to do if you were wrong. I do want to say this though (and invite correction from any who may be able to enlighten me further). If you read up on how the bible came to be in it's current form to include the various translations you will find that some of what is found in certain versions may not have been in the original writings of the original human authors, while something else may be missing. This is due to various reasons including damage and missing sections of earliest known documents that are translated from. There have also been things included in various translations that were added for clarification where literal translation into English (in our case) was unable to sufficiently relate the thought and intent of the author. Anyway, as I said, I am not the person to speak to specifics in this area. What I really wanted to express here is this. We know that in fact the Holy Spirit was the true author of scripture as He inspired men as to what to write. He did this why allowing those men to present His message while staying true to their own personalities which is clearly seen when reading the different authors. The key when studying from different versions is in knowing that God was in control of His word and what the various authors penned was under God's control. With this in mind it is safe to believe that God continues to be in control and have total authority over His word to include watching over translations. As with the original penning of His word, I believe God also uses man in the process and so those like you and me are thankful to those who have the calling and the time to thoroughly research translations as they come out and verify the accuracy and legitimacy of each. I would be careful not to assume (or believe what others tell you) that Satan has had any significant influence (if any at all) and/or control over God's word to include various translations that have been reviewed and accepted. What I get from the bible is that God looks at His word in the same way a parent might look at his/her child. Very protective and maintaining authority over it. Isa 55:11 So shall my word be that goeth forth out of my mouth: it shall not return unto me void, but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing whereto I sent it. One last thing, be careful in judging whether one version is more accurate unless we have research to support our position. For example, on the verse RAF had asked about, Act 8:37, find the following note interesting. The best authorities omit v. 37. (Scofield Reference Notes Hope this helps |
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1230 | Pushed out and Exposed | Bible general Archive 2 | jlhetrick | 150859 | ||
Is this a trivia question? | ||||||
1231 | how can i get the powers of the holy spi | Gal 5:16 | jlhetrick | 150857 | ||
First you must be saved (if you are not) Rom 10:9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved. Rom 10:10 For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation. (KJV) When god saves you through faith in Jesus Christ, He "seals" you with His Spirit. The Holy Spirit actually dwells within your heart. 2Co 1:21 Now he which stablisheth us with you in Christ, and hath anointed us, is God; 2Co 1:22 Who hath also sealed us, and given the earnest of the Spirit in our hearts.(KJV) You have all of Him and there is no more to obtain, however, it is He, the Holy Spirit, that will operate at various times imparting His power to you and/or through you as necessary for accomplishing specific tasks for Him. Luk 12:11 When people bring you before synagogue leaders, rulers, or authorities, don't worry about how you will defend yourselves or what you will say. Luk 12:12 For in that hour the Holy Spirit will teach you what you are to say." (ISV) Rom 8:11 But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you.(KJV) So, bibleheat, I believe the answer to your question can be summed up in this way. Question: "How can i get the powers of the holy spirit?" Answer: You can't. What you can "get" is the blessing of having the Holy Spirit dwell within your heart and then He will make use of His own power when necessary where you are concerend. Be careful not to be swayed by different kinds of teachings and doctrines that you may hear or even read in books regarding this subject. The "power" of the Holy Spirit is not something we "get" as though something baught at the store or traded for. Act 8:18 Now when Simon saw that the Spirit was given through the laying on of the apostles' hands, he offered them money Act 8:19 and said, "Give me this power too, so that when I lay my hands on someone he will receive the Holy Spirit." Act 8:20 But Peter said to him, "May your money perish with you because you thought you could obtain God's free gift with money! (ISV) I answer this question to my understanding of the scriptures and with love and consideration. I have been on the journey you are on. I too had once been under the impression, lead to believe, that there was some way of acqiring God's powers to use as needed, when needed. God will use His powers as needed according to His will and good pleasure. I had also struggled for a very long time as the lie was told to me that I "must not be truly saved" because I "had not demonstrated my salvation" through certain works or "gifts" of the Spirit. What a struggle this was for me. What a terrible lie from the evil one. Hope this really does help |
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1232 | So HOW do you walk in the Spirit ? | Gal 5:16 | jlhetrick | 150855 | ||
JCrichton (Angel) Very good response (not that the others aren't as well). We need to really encourage other christians, especially new christians, the importance of approaching scripture in context. |
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1233 | Falling to Temptation is Being Deceived | James 1:14 | jlhetrick | 147048 | ||
Hello again Doc. I just want to give a short answer concerning myself personally. I think that temptation and deceit can be the same thing but are not necesarrily the same in every case. Personally, I regularly experience temptation where there is no deceit. In fact, for me, I think it's those temptations that I struggle with the most, because when it results in sin the guilt can be overwhelming. Like Paul, I keep doing those things that I know I shouldn't and very often don't do those that I know I should be doing. Very often I am tempted, and sometimes fall to the temptation, where I can not claim "I was deceived" which, in some cases is a cop-out. Webster's Dictionary defines deceit as ..."the misleading of a person; the leading of another person to believe what is false, or not to believe what is true..." I am ashamed to say, that I am often tempted and at times follow through with sin when I know, from the beginning of the temptation, that what I am thinking about doing, or doing, is sinful, and sometimes do it anyway. I would agree that in some cases there is deceit involved, both from the devil and that of deceiving myself (making excuses or rationalizing behaviors). I see this often in my patients. Deep down they know a behavior is wrong, but they have so rationalized it, so often and to the point at which they have taken on a sense of believing their own excuses. They have effectually deceived themselves. I think though that James 1:14 given as reference illustrates this. It certainly speaks of deception, but it appears that it's the person's on "lust" or "passion" that is involved in the deceiving. Thanks for posting a question that makes us consider this, I will be looking forward to seeing other responses and how others may view this. jlhetrick |
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1234 | Who is Melchizedek? | Gen 14:18 | jlhetrick | 147044 | ||
Doc, BradK,and Searcher: Thanks for your feedback, your words did help to give me more insight and, as usual for me, more to think about. I appreciate your sharing with me (especially in the loving way you each did so). I am always thankful for this type of feedback because it always inspires me to study all the more and all the more carefully. As you remember in my posting regarding Christ being Melchizedeck, I continuously qualified my statements with "I believe" rather than "I know" I am always open to redirection and to being humbled, especially, if in my humility, I come to a greater understanding of the word and by so draw closer to the Lord. Thanks, you were all helpful. | ||||||
1235 | Who is Melchizedek? | Gen 14:18 | jlhetrick | 146979 | ||
Hi Doc! thanks for responding, but, I don't follow. If Melchizedeck were not Christ, how could he meet all of the criteria mentioned? Eager to learn | ||||||
1236 | what if a christian is married to non-ch | 2 Cor 6:14 | jlhetrick | 146978 | ||
Hello aiello! I believe that prayon's answer is accurate in that a believer is not to marry a nonbeliever (2 Cor. 6:14). However, I understood from you questions that you were already married before you came to the Lord. If you were already married (and perhaps that is irrelevent since you are legally married now) the scriptures has much more to say about it. first, if you were already married before coming to believe and being saved, refer to 1 Cor. 7:13. We are not told here but it is practicle to believe that in the early days of the church, while so many were coming to believe in the Lord, that it was a very common event for a husband or a wife to hear and believe before the other. If that new believer were to then "leave" what hope then would there be for the unbelieving spouse to come into the knowledge of the Lord and be saved? A key here in the verse mentioned is that if the unbelieving spouse consents to stay with the believer, the believer is not to leave. the unbeliever is "sanctified in" the believer making it possible that the children are "holy". (a biblical proof, I believe that God establishes and sanctifies the family). Don't forget the following chapter. If the unbeliever leaves on his/her own accord, the believing spouse is "not bound" 1 Cor. 7:16 may be the most important. You may someday lead your husband to the Lord. Next, Jesus spoke to divorce as sinful (see Mark 10:4-12) Even if you were a believer and then married an unbeliever would divorce be an option. If we believe that for a believer to marry an unbeliever is a sin (it goes against teaching of scripture) then are we to believe that divorcing this unbeliever after the fact is any less a sin? Is it possible to right a wrong with a wrong? Would the sin of divorce be justified on the basis that the marriage, in the first place, was sinful? Finally, let me say that if you or your children are being physically abused you need to ensure both your and their safety. I don't find in scripture where God expects us to keep ourselves and our children at risk of personal injury or death. I have heard of some teaching from scripture that allows for divorce in the case that a spouse "deserts" the other. I believe I read it in a book authored by Pat Robertson. I'm sorry but the book title and referenced scriptures I have forgotten. I think I remember him explaining how a spouse who has completely foresaken the vows of marriage, though he/she may still be physically present, has in fact deserted the marriage. This, of course, may not be at all what he was teaching and may not have any scriptural suppport whatsoever so please don't make a decision based on the "desertion" issue before searching and praying and knowing it's right. |
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1237 | Who is Melchizedek? | Gen 14:18 | jlhetrick | 146974 | ||
The bible never specifically tells us who Melchizedek was of course, but, there is enough in description to lead me to believe that he was possibly Jesus Himself. We know that Jesus was and is God and that He has always been in existance. We also know that He participated directly here on earth since the beginning (John 1:1) and we know that Jesus was active in creating the earth. So, of course, he was not just in Heaven waiting for His earthly ministry. As for the descriptions in Hebrews. Abraham offered Melchizedeck a tith. At this time in history, the bible tells of no man greater in faith than Abrham. He was, at that time, God's "leading man" so to speak. therefore, I believe, who else would be in a position to receive a tith from Abraham. (I believe the bible is clear that it is the "lesser" who offers up a tith to the "greater". Melchizedek is referred to as "the King of Righteousness" and "the King of peace". The bible never refers to anyone other than God by these titles. for my understanding, Heb. 7:3 seems to establish that Melchizedek was Jesus. "Without father, without mother, without genealogy; having neither beginning of days nor end of life..." These characteristics could only be true of God. This is a mystery, or is it. I believe that God intentionally gave us enough to draw a conclusion. The bible only tells of God presenting Himself on earth in the flesh as Jesus Christ. Angels have also been sent to appear as men, however, they would not be attributed the characteristics mentioned. (quotes from Darby Bible 1889) |
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1238 | please explain uncomely Icorth7vs36 | 1 Cor 7:36 | jlhetrick | 146667 | ||
Take vs 36 in context with the chapter and discussion. vs 1 of this chapter says "it's good for a man not to touch a woman." vs 2 "but because sexual immorality is so rampant, every man should have his own wife..." (International Standard Version). The rest of the chapter leading up to vs 36 clearly talks about pro's and con's of marriage and repeatedly makes reference to sexual issues. the bible, especially the new testement repetedly makes reference to the "sins of the flesh" and sexual immorality being high up on the list in terms of temptation and acting in sin. "uncomely" in this verse is obviously referring to the man beginning to "act out" on his sexual temptation toward the "virgin" as described in the AMPLIFIED translation "not acting properly toard..." The verse is specifically setting the standard that sexual "playfullness" and behavior toward someone you are not married to is improper (therefore sinful). To continue with this type of behavior is to continue to sin. The only way to be "justified" or "right" in this behavior is that the other person be your spouse. therefore, fefrain from such behavior, or, marry her and be justified before God. |
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1239 | Is sex marriage? Premarital Sex: Sin? | 1 Cor 7:36 | jlhetrick | 146664 | ||
I am new to the forum and didn't see the previous answer to your question so I hope I'm not just throwing the same thing back at you. It sounds like you have read what Paul had to say in 1 Co 7:36. You ask for a deep answer, but why? If the answer is simple and easily accessible what motivates you to want to complicate it. Perhaps you are trying to justify your own behavior or lifestyle (not judging just asking you to explore this). I still haven't offered a answer. I could offer many scriptural references and make it "deeper" but the bible is clear. It is clear from the context that 1 Co 7:36 is referring to sexual temptation of a man to a woman who is not his wife. It is also very plain that if you are unable to keep yourself under control and resist the temptation, you should marry the girl if you intend to go forward into a sexual relationship. there is no need to make it a deeper issue when the answer is given specifically. As for whether having sex with one person constitutes marriage (if I understood the question) that's an easy "NO" Marriage is clearly represented in both old and new testements as involving a "certificate" something written and of a legal nature and "ceremony" which speaks to the public announcement before man and God. Read Matt. 19:9. Now if a man "divorces his wife" in order to "marry another" then divorce must include some action as does the remarrying. This verse makes it clear that the "divorcing" is not simply constituted by adultry, or moving on to another sexual relationship, which would have to be the case if "sex is marriage". If this were the case then the process or concept of divorce would not be possible or necessary after the spouse had comitted "sexual imorality". because by having done so (committing sexual imorality) the divorce would have been effectually produced or completed. |
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