Results 121 - 140 of 169
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Results from: Notes Author: Aspiring Overseer Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
121 | What if you don't obey that command? | Rom 6:4 | Aspiring Overseer | 56868 | ||
If someone were to seek to be justified by the Law of Moses, which this verse refers to, you would be correct. | ||||||
122 | What are the "works of God"? | Rom 6:4 | Aspiring Overseer | 56912 | ||
I agree fully. | ||||||
123 | What are the "works of God"? | Rom 6:4 | Aspiring Overseer | 56913 | ||
Is 1:18 adjures God's people to reason together with Him. Why do you feel that a viewpoint which is contrary to the commonly held notion should not be given a fair hearing? I will remind you that I am not the one making personal attacks. I just appear to be in the minority on this forum. If you were offended by anything I have written, it was not my intent. P. S. FYI, the "works of the Law" you refer to in Romans 3:28 are the works of the Law of Moses, not the works of the Law of Faith. Two different covenants; two different laws. |
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124 | is there security of the believer | Rom 8:39 | Aspiring Overseer | 68358 | ||
NKA, I am sure you are familiar with John chapter 15, where Jesus teaches His disciples about the kingdom of heaven. It reads: John 15:1-2 15:1"I am the true vine, and My Father is the vinedresser. 2"Every branch in Me (in Christ) that does not bear fruit, He takes away; and every branch that bears fruit, He prunes (disciplines) it, that it may bear more fruit. If people wish to be part of the "true vine" they must be "in Christ", that is to be covered by the atoning sacrifice of His blood, as I am sure you agree. Pay close attention to what is said next, however; those branches already "in Christ", who do not bear fruit, are taken away! These branches (Christians) were "in Christ" (i.e. saved and having full knowledge of the goodness of God) yet they did not bear fruit and thus lost their salvation! Why did they bear no fruit? Is not God able to perform all the works necessary? If God were to ensure our salvation regardless of our effort, then this chapter, and many others, are foolishness. Of course, they are not, so from the perspective of an independent thinker in Scripture; which I trust, you are; this requires careful consideration. We can either trust in what others say about Scripture or research it for ourselves. Agreed? John 15:8 8 By this is My Father glorified, that you bear much fruit, and so prove to be My disciples. NAS Christians must put forth the effort to prove themselves as Christ’s disciples. AO |
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125 | is there security of the believer | Rom 8:39 | Aspiring Overseer | 68424 | ||
Joe, These are the verses we are discussing: John 15:1-2 15:1"I am the true vine, and My Father is the vinedresser. 2"Every branch in Me that does not bear fruit, He takes away; and every branch that bears fruit, He prunes it, that it may bear more fruit. NAS What is the "true vine" and who are those who are "in Me"? AO |
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126 | when a I saved and when baptised | Rom 10:9 | Aspiring Overseer | 189485 | ||
Steve, Thank you for an excellent post. Some folks may be confused by John’s baptism versus Christian baptism so I have taken the liberty to expand slightly on your work. Though John 1:33 and Matthew 21:25 refer to John's baptism, which has been supplanted, Christian baptism is unquestionably a commandment of God and must be obeyed for salvation. I have listed some of the verses here for easier following. God sent John to baptize and thereby establish its precedent. John the Baptist said, John 1:33 33 "And I did not recognize Him, but He who sent me to baptize in water said to me, 'He upon whom you see the Spirit descending and remaining upon Him, this is the one who baptizes in the Holy Spirit.' NAS Jesus confirmed John’s action was commanded by God. While not the same as Christian baptism, it foreshadowed its arrival. Matthew 21:25 25 "The baptism of John was from what source, from heaven or from men?" And they began reasoning among themselves, saying, "If we say, 'From heaven,' He will say to us, 'Then why did you not believe him?' NAS The Lord commands his disciples to baptize. Although given before the Church began, Christ confirms the action. Matthew 28:18-20 19 "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit, 20 teaching them to observe all that I commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age. " NAS And, finally, Peter confirms the Lord’s command for baptism in the current age. Acts 10:48 48 And he ordered them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then they asked him to stay on for a few days. NAS As you so succinctly wrote, “It has nothing at all to do with legalism or salvation by works etc... but everything to do with humbling ourselves in submission to God in obedience to Him!”. Best regards, AO |
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127 | when a I saved and when baptised | Rom 10:9 | Aspiring Overseer | 189531 | ||
Steve, Thank you for your response. It is an interesting doctrine that people are called on to believe and confess God; both actions requiring human effort; yet water baptism is beyond the pale! You are correct in stating this subject has been discussed at length so I will not subject you or others following this thread to a repeat of the discussion. Please feel most welcome to contact me individually, if desired. Best regards, AO |
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128 | when a I saved and when baptised | Rom 10:9 | Aspiring Overseer | 189598 | ||
Steve, Scripture is very clear on the mater that Christianity is simply not a "something for nothing" religion as is so often erroneously asserted. The natural man does indeed revise God's Word to agree with their desire to have no responsibility for their own actions. Thus the constant refrain of half-truths train and sustain a population who may have a great zeal for God, but not in accordance with the truth. They seek the easy road, stubbornly refusing to acknowledge their own God-given ability to chose between good and evil, they unwittingly proclaim themselves to be helpless souls, waiting for a "revelation" from God that they manufacture in their own minds, allowing themselves the "free pass" they crave from their daily deeds. The requirement of baptism for salvation has been contested since the later half of the first century, but Scripture is indeed clear on its necessity. Acts 2:38 38And Peter said to them, "Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. NAS They chose to repent and be baptized in order to receive the Holy Spirit. Acts 8:36 36And as they went along the road they came to some water; and the eunuch said, "Look! Water! What prevents me from being baptized?" NAS He excitedly chose to be baptized as soon as it was physically possible. Acts 16:32-34 33And he took them that very hour of the night and washed their wounds, and immediately he was baptized, he and all his household. NAS They were immediately baptized. Why not wait until the rest of their friends and family could witness the event? Because they were acting on their faith that the words presented to them were the command of God. John 14:15 15 "If you love Me, you will keep My commandments. NAS 1 Peter 3:21-22 21 And corresponding to that, baptism now saves you-- not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience-- through the resurrection of Jesus Christ, 22 who is at the right hand of God, having gone into heaven, after angels and authorities and powers had been subjected to Him. NAS Baptism now saves you by being the final step to the grace offered through the blood of Christ. God could not make it any clearer, “Baptism now saves you”. How? Not in itself, but through the individual’s obedience to the command of God, allowing that person to finally have a clear conscience before the Lord. Agree or disagree, each of us must make our own decision. Best regards, AO |
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129 | when a I saved and when baptised | Rom 10:9 | Aspiring Overseer | 189613 | ||
BradK, Thank you for your feedback. How many times must God cause to be written His commands before they are expected to be followed? If it is more than once, then a person should check themselves to see if they are in the faith. I agree that context is critical and that is why God included Romans 11:1-5 before giving us verse 6 so that we would know that the works which were ineffective were the works of the Law of Moses. This says nothing about excluding work from the Law of Faith. As to 1 Peter 3:21 being difficult to understand, its preceding verse should make abundantly clear that as eight were brought safely through the water, so God's people today are brought safely into the body of Christ through the same element. Best regards, AO |
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130 | when a I saved and when baptised | Rom 10:9 | Aspiring Overseer | 189697 | ||
Brad, The important point of 1 Peter 3:20-21 is not who was “wet”, but that God’s people where brought safely through the water. Those indeed who “got wet” and were disobedient to God were not saved. Also, as a point of clarification, water baptism does not by itself save anyone, but it is the only means by which the saving blood of Christ may be contacted. To obey everything else of God’s commands yet neglect water baptism is like building a bridge half-way across a river. It might look great as you are driving across, but it’s end will bring an unpleasant (and wet) surprise. Best regards, AO |
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131 | when a I saved and when baptised | Rom 10:9 | Aspiring Overseer | 189706 | ||
Dear Steve, Thank you for your reply and please forgive my delayed response. Your shear number of verses require a bit of work to address! You previously wrote in part: “If Acts 2:38 is interpreted as you interpret it, then we must reject other scripture. For example, what do you do with the following scriptures if your interpretation of Acts 2:38 is correct (John 3:16, Romans 4:1-17, Romans 11:6, Galatians 3:8-9, Ephesians 2:8-9, etc...)?” Letting Acts 2:38 speak for itself (as we should with all scripture), the gift of the Holy Spirit (salvation) is only received after water baptism. We should note that this is a gift received by all those who have believed, confessed, repented and are baptized. The baptism you refer to for Cornelius and his family was the Baptism of the Holy Spirit. Only completed twice in the Christian Age; once for the first Gentile converts and once for the first Jewish converts (the Apostles). Thus we have the example of the very first preaching of the Gospel of Christ: Acts 2:38 38 And Peter said to them, "Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. NAS Now, the other verses you list as being irreconcilable are: John 3:16 16 "For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish, but have eternal life. NAS We should note that “should” as in “should not perish” is completely conditional and must be subject to something else (i.e. obedience) and thus can not be honestly used to support the “grace alone” doctrine. Romans 4:3 3 For what does the Scripture say? "And Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned to him as righteousness." NAS We know that Abraham believed God because he did what he was commanded to do. He moved to another land, he offered up his son, etc.. All things requiring action (James 2:21-23) Romans 11:6-7 6 But if it is by grace, it is no longer on the basis of works, otherwise grace is no longer grace. NAS The works referenced are works of the Mosaic Law. Fulfilled by Christ and no longer applicable (Romans 11:1-24) Galatians 3:6 6 Even so Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned to him as righteousness. NAS It was only though Abraham’s actions that his faith was proven and the previous scripture fulfilled (James 2:21-23). Finally, Ephesians 2:8-9 simply does not say God requires nothing of His people for salvation. In fact, verse 10 specifically states that we were created for the good works God has commanded of all Christians. The passage, in context, instructs us that God’s plan of salvation was not brought about by any action of man, either Jew or Gentile, but is God’s gift to man through Christ Jesus. There was nothing any of us could have done to cause God to send His Son to be our sacrifice for sin. It was solely His choice; His design. Ephesians 2:8-10 8 For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; 9 not as a result of works, that no one should boast. 10 For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them. NAS As an added bonus, we can also note that the Apostle Paul taught the reason for his own water baptism was to wash away sins. Acts 22:16-17 16'And now why do you delay? Arise, and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on His name.' NAS If Paul’s sins had not been cleansed, how could he have been saved? In fact, he was not saved until he emerged from the waters of baptism, having fulfilled God’s commandment leading to eternal life. Best regards, AO |
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132 | when a I saved and when baptised | Rom 10:9 | Aspiring Overseer | 189707 | ||
Brad, Since I assume you do not mean by your comment there is more than one way to contact the blood of Christ, the issue remains how do we know water baptism is the final step towards salvation. We, of course, have the very first instance of preaching the gospel by Peter: Acts 2:38-39 38 And Peter said to them, "Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. NAS We must be baptized into Christ. Since baptism by the Holy Spirit was only for the Apostles and the first gentiles, the only other Christian baptism mentioned in the NT is through water. Ephesians 4:4-7 4 There is one body and one Spirit, just as also you were called in one hope of your calling; 5 one Lord, one faith, one baptism, 6 one God and Father of all who is over all and through all and in all. NAS 1 Corinthians 12:13 13 For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body, whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free, and we were all made to drink of one Spirit. NAS Galatians 3:26-27 27 For all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ. NAS Hebrews 10:19-22 19 Since therefore, brethren, we have confidence to enter the holy place by the blood of Jesus, 20 by a new and living way which He inaugurated for us through the veil, that is, His flesh, 21 and since we have a great priest over the house of God, 22 let us draw near with a sincere heart in full assurance of faith, having our hearts sprinkled clean from an evil conscience and our bodies washed with pure water. NAS Acts 22:15-16 16'And now why do you delay? Arise, and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on His name.' NAS Best regards, AO |
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133 | what is speaking in tongues? | 1 Corinthians | Aspiring Overseer | 70688 | ||
Derek, The miraculous gifts were established for what purpose? Was it not to confirm the validity of God's Word? Once it was obvious throughout the world that His word was the truth, there was no need for the confirmation. Thus we see even Paul's ability to use the gifts wane until they were no more. The "partial" that he mentions to the Corinthians is the need of these gifts to accompany and thereby confirm God's Word until the written form of God's Word was in place. That is "the perfect" and is, of course, here today. Complete, perfect and unchanging in every detail. As an aside, if tongues or healing existed today there would be 100 percent sucess in curing the sick and all tongues could be validated as an intelligable language. Even if we go with the suggestion that the "tongues of angels" in 1 Co 13:1, is a language unknown to man, Paul still commands that they not be spoken publically (1 Co 14:28) if there is no interpreter. This likely was a safeguard against those in the body who did not truely have the gift of tongues, but felt compelled to display it. To falsify the gift and bring others into their sin would corrupt the body, thus Paul directed it only be done in private. How someone desires to worship God in private is upon their own head. This was always the case in the NT and remains so today. AO |
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134 | what is speaking in tongues? | 1 Corinthians | Aspiring Overseer | 70711 | ||
Steve, God's Word has gone into all the earth, yet still many disbelieve. God's hope is for all to be saved, yet most will not seek Him. As for healing,we absolutely know that there was 100 percent sucess. Here are but two of many examples: Matt 8:16-17 16And when evening had come, they brought to Him many who were demon-possessed; and He cast out the spirits with a word, and healed all who were ill NAS Acts 5:16 16And also the people from the cities in the vicinity of Jerusalem were coming together, bringing people who were sick or afflicted with unclean spirits; and they were all being healed. NAS All those that were brought before Jesus or the Apostles were healed. If miraculoous gifts exist today, should not those who have this ability perform the same deeds as the 1st century church? AO |
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135 | what is speaking in tongues? | 1 Corinthians | Aspiring Overseer | 70754 | ||
Steve, If God desires all to come to the knowledge of the truth, but knows that most will not, where is the contradiction? Christians walk by faith, not by sight. He expects those that follow Christ to do so not because of miracles, but through the evidences He has left us in His word. Just because the entire world population is not Christian does not mean they do not already acknowledge God's word as the truth. Many will never acknowledge it, even if you or I were to interpret each other's tongues or healed their friend's and family of grave illnesses. God still hopes that they would be saved, but He knows that most will not. Regardless, He does not withhold salvation from anyone who loves Him. His word is available to anyone who desires it on this Earth. All they must do is ask for help. Regarding healing, let’s take a look again at one of the verses found in the NT: Acts 5:16 16And also the people from the cities in the vicinity of Jerusalem were coming together, bringing people who were sick or afflicted with unclean spirits; and most were being healed. NAS Wait a minute!!!!! Actually, please forgive my literary license. It actually reads: Acts 5:16 16And also the people from the cities in the vicinity of Jerusalem were coming together, bringing people who were sick or afflicted with unclean spirits; and they were all being healed. NAS Regardless of the translation, the language is very clear; everyone, who came to be healed, was healed. There were no exceptions, at least not that I have found. If you know of something I have missed, please let me know! Hope you're having a great Christmas, AO |
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136 | what is speaking in tongues? | 1 Corinthians | Aspiring Overseer | 70776 | ||
Steve, Requests for healing being denied would be quite significant, would they not? All sin is equal in God's eyes, so there is no logical reason for scripture to address a person's occupation with regard to their salvation. There would be a need to demonstrate the withholding of healing, however, if it was conditional upon who asked or how they asked. If the silence argument were to be valid, it would need to be in alignment with the nature of God. The fulfillment of the Old Covenant was an event that required miracles to confirm the validity of the change. Withholding those miracles would have been inconsistent with His purpose and contrary to His Word. Additionally, and back to our original discussion, the silence position does not explain why miraculous healing can not be conducted with 100 percent success today. Are sick children in our hospitals in the same basket as an "imagined Pharisee" demanding healing as a sign? Let's reason together and look at scripture logically. From that framework, continued miraculous gifts do not exist today and can only be weakly supported by adding to scripture. Their purpose was fulfilled with the arrival of the written word. P. S. I am short on time, but will put some more thought to the validity question you pose at a later date. AO |
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137 | what is speaking in tongues? | 1 Corinthians | Aspiring Overseer | 70821 | ||
Steve, For clarification,we are talking about healings ordained by God. The question is: Does the NT give any examples of these as not being successful? If it does not mention any, then why? What does a healer and a healee (forgive my terminology) need for efective healing to occur? AO |
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138 | Are tongues a world language or not? | 1 Corinthians | Aspiring Overseer | 70884 | ||
If you read Acts chapters 1 and 2 carefully, the accounting of the 120 disciples and the Apostle's receiving the gift of tongues are separate instances. The tongues heard by those visiting Jerusalem were those of the 12. The 120 may have received the tongues after they were baptized, but not at the same time as the Apostles. AO |
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139 | Are tongues a world language or not? | 1 Corinthians | Aspiring Overseer | 71009 | ||
Tim, The last verse of Acts chapter 1 is speaking of the Apostles. Acts 2:1 continues to speak of the Apostles when it says "they were all together in one place". In verse Acts 2:3 the "tongues as of fire..rested on each one of them", again referring to the Apostles. Acts 2:7 also mentions that those who heard them speak in tongues "were amazed and marveled, saying, "Why are not all these who are speaking Galileans?". Not all of the disciples were Galilean and only the Apostles received the Holy Spirit in this way, thus Acts 2:7. Is this helpful? AO |
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140 | Are tongues a world language or not? | 1 Corinthians | Aspiring Overseer | 71010 | ||
I whole hearted agree that God is not the author of confusion and that is why I urge you to re-examine Acts chapters 1 and 2. The 120 could not have received the gift of tongues, as you claim, otherwise it would have been sheer confusion! The "all" refers to "all of the apostles. Verses Acts 1:26 through Acts 2:15 and Acts 2:43 apply. The last verse of Acts chapter 1 is speaking of the Apostles. Acts 2:1 continues to speak of the Apostles when it says "they were all together in one place". In verse Acts 2:3 the "tongues as of fire..rested on each one of them", again referring to the Apostles. Acts 2:7 also mentions that those who heard them speak in tongues "were amazed and marveled, saying, "Why are not all these who are speaking Galileans?". Not all of the disciples were Galilean and only the Apostles received the Holy Spirit in this way, thus Acts 2:7. Is this helpful? AO |
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