Results 101 - 116 of 116
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: cajam Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
101 | Women Preachers? Yes or No? | Bible general Archive 2 | cajam | 94846 | ||
It is because they was learning and did not have the knowledge that their husbands had. It was common in that day for the men to have the education and knowledge of scripture.Of course there were exceptions. | ||||||
102 | Does speaking in tongues come naturally? | Acts | cajam | 92056 | ||
Greetings justme I used (Romans 10:14-17)"How then shall they call on him in whom they have not believed? and how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? and how can they hear with out a preacher. (Example) When Peter preached to Cornelius and those with him Acts 10:46 states " While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word. Note: (Acts 10:46) For they heard them SPEAK WITH TONGUES AND MAGNIFY GOD.Peter did not teach or preach tongues. Only the Word.This did not come by study or reading. This tongue is not the gift of tongues but the sign when one receive the Holy Ghost. There is a difference in the two and that is one reason there is confusion. This can seem complex. But if you would like to discuss this farther I can E-Mail you with my number. May God Bless | ||||||
103 | Does speaking in tongues come naturally? | Acts | cajam | 91984 | ||
Searcher, Greetings I agree with you on why Paul taught the proper use of the gift of tongues. But what you may not be aware of is that there is a gift of tongues given by the spirit that is subject to the speaker. And there is a tongue that is not subject to the speaker as is the case when someone receive the Gift of the Holy Ghost.(Acts 2:4) and (Acts 2:8) is not at the same point in time Note:"When it was noised abroad".However you are correct that there was no need for a interpretation because of the nations that was present.But neither is one need when one is fill with the Holy Ghost. What Paul taught about the gift of tongues (that is given to who God choices that have already received the Holy Ghost) do not apply when someone receive the Holy Ghost or is beening refilled. | ||||||
104 | Does speaking in tongues come naturally? | Acts | cajam | 91869 | ||
If you beleive when an unbeliever hears tongues it is a known language to him. If this were true then there would not have been a reason for Paul to teach the Church in the proper use of the gift. How do you exsplain (1 Cor 14:23) also (1 Cor 13:1) do not state or imply that the language of Angels is always understood by all men. Paul would have no need to say "though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels" if there is no difference. | ||||||
105 | Does speaking in tongues come naturally? | Acts | cajam | 91866 | ||
You can receive the Holy Ghost and speak in tongues as the spirit of God give utterance. This is not learned. It mean exactly what it says.You can speak in tongues when you receive the Holy Ghost with out having to have seen or heard others speak.I know this for a fact.However, the scriptures shows that you must receive instruction(Roman 10:14-17) I can not put God in a box, but no where in scripture did God fill any one with the Holy Ghost by them reading the word without someone to instruct them. | ||||||
106 | Does speaking in tongues come naturally? | Acts | cajam | 91857 | ||
Hi, Justme could you clarify what you mean by "with out being taught" Do you mean being taught the scriptures? | ||||||
107 | discuss filling of Spirit/tongues gift | Acts | cajam | 74475 | ||
All gifts of spirits including speaking in tongues is given by God according to his will (Hebrews 2:4) However, you can ask (James 4:2-3).All of Paul teaching in 1cor. with the exception of 1cor.13:8 should not be confused with the Baptizm of the Holy Ghost spoken of in the book of Acts 1:5. The Baptizm of the Holy Ghost "speaking in tongues as the spirit give utterance" Acts 2:4 (all in the upper room) 9:17-18 (Paul,even thou it do not say so here read 1cor 14:18) 10:44-48 (Cornelius, kinsmen and near friends) 19:2-3 (disciples of John) Notice the connection between the water baptizm in the name of Jesus Christ and the Holy Ghost baptizm. | ||||||
108 | when do I spake in tounges | Acts | cajam | 74468 | ||
Amen | ||||||
109 | when do I spake in tounges | Acts | cajam | 74466 | ||
In Acts 2:4 they were in the upper room (Acts 13).They were also of one language(Acts 7). So, what need would there be for them to speak in tongues (Acts 2:4)if it was not a sign of the Holy Ghost? They clearly didn't need it to preach to each other.However, you do have a valid point only concerning Acts 2:6. This was a different point in time, for verse 6 says "when it was noised abroad (I take it to mean within the city).Also, how could all these people fit into the upper room(Acts 2:9-11).You also states that "If your heart is willing to practice in you bible study, then God will grant you the Holy Spirit.Where do you find this? Acts 2:38 "Then Peter Said unto them Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the Name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye SHALL RECEIVE THE GIFT OF THE HOLY GHOST. God desire obedience to his Work. Not more bible study. The "nowadays tongues" as you refer to them is no different from what was going on in the Church at Corint.They just had to be taught, and that is what Paul did. Those that have the gift of tongues can control themselves then and now. If they couldn't then Paul would not have told them to.What makes you think that they can't control themselves? | ||||||
110 | Jesus' name baptism? | Acts 2:38 | cajam | 74209 | ||
Hi Charis, I commend you on your study of the scriptures on the baptizm in Jesus name.Yes, the apostles did get it right.You have to remember that when Jesus said in Matthew 28:19 to baptize in the name of the Father, Son, and the Holy Spirit.He was talking to the apostles,and not to the general public.They knew that this name is Jesus. You do need God to reveal it to you.But, it have been my experience that this come usually after one have been obedient to his Word. |
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111 | Holy Spirit without evidence of tongues? | Acts | cajam | 74113 | ||
Hi BradK, The answer to your question is,Yes I do, As it refer to the gifts of the Spirit.But,Not the Spirit itself.Because that is by which the love of God is shed abroad in our hearts (Romans 5:5) |
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112 | Holy Spirit without evidence of tongues? | Acts | cajam | 74031 | ||
Hello Steve,If you do according to Acts 2:38 (not just reading it) then you will receive what you need.There are some things only God can reveal to you. If any man do God's will, he shall know of the doctrine,if it is of him,or not. I don't care how much scripture you read(2Tim 3:7).Acts 2:28 states that you shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost (it did not say the gift of tongues)and Acts 2:4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak in tongues, as the Sprit gave them utterance.What scripture saids this is done away? A better question may be,can one receive the Holy Ghost without speaking in tongues? .And I can only say,read the scripture and see if there is a outward manifestation after one have receive the Holy Ghost and the answer is,Yes.This,in itself,in no means complete you salvation (Heb 6:1-3) |
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113 | when do I spake in tounges | Acts | cajam | 73952 | ||
When converts was filled (or is filled) with the Holy Ghost and spoke in tongues. It was not(nor is) the same as the gift of tongues. |
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114 | Holy Spirit without evidence of tongues? | Acts | cajam | 73951 | ||
The gift of the Holy Ghost (speaking in tongues as the spirit of God give utterance). Is not the same as the gift of tongues Paul speaks of in 1 cor 12:30 | ||||||
115 | when do I spake in tounges | Acts | cajam | 73947 | ||
Hi, Peter gives the formula for receiving the Holy Ghost in Acts 2:38.Being fill with the Holy Ghost is the beginning of the born again exsperience |
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116 | Is the Holy Ghost still given? | Acts 2:38 | cajam | 73545 | ||
yes Read Acts 2:38-39 | ||||||
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