Results 1 - 20 of 110
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: jeremiah1five Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | God created man sin-ful? | Not Specified | jeremiah1five | 241519 | ||
Scripture teaches that there is only One God, that God gives His glory to no one, and there is none like God. I do not believe God can reduplicate Himself in Himself so part of His plan for man is to create heaven, earth, etc. I have come to believe that God created man (Adam) sin-ful, or as the word is defined by Strong's "to miss the mark." What is that "mark?" The glory of God. Adam sinned because he was created a sinner, or sin-ful, as there is only One God. If God is the standard by which everyone and everything is judged, and if Paul is correct that "I had not known sin but by the Law. For I had not known lust except the Law said 'thou shalt not covet." Wouldn't the command to Adam "thou shalt not eat of it [the fruit/tree]" also qualify as a law/command of "thou shalt not" showing that Adam was a sinner? Adam had not known disobedience except the law/command said "thou shalt not eat of it?" Sin comes from sinners, sin does not come from holy, and if man was anything less than holy he would sin. The last Adam proves this? |
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2 | Twins? | Not Specified | jeremiah1five | 241581 | ||
What say you? Were Cain and Abel twins? Genesis 4:1-2 (KJV) 1 And Adam knew Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bare Cain, and said, I have gotten a man from the LORD. 2 And she again bare his brother Abel. And Abel was a keeper of sheep, but Cain was a tiller of the ground. (Isaiah 1:18) |
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3 | Defend the Offender-Attack the Offended? | Not Specified | jeremiah1five | 241662 | ||
QUOTE: (found on the page I view) "Note to viewers: This thread has been temporarily restricted from appearing on the homepage. If you submit a question, answer, or note to this thread, it will be processed and added to the thread, but will not appear on the homepage." I'd like to ask why is the Holy Spirit within me being muzzled and you attempting to control my gift and call in Christ? Christians should love honesty and truthfulness, not try to control God and God's servant. Why am I being treated so disrespectfully? First you defend the offender and false accuser and then you attack the offended. This is ungodly. |
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4 | God created man sin-ful? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241520 | ||
Scripture teaches that there is only One God, that God gives His glory to no one, and there is none like God. I do not believe God can reduplicate Himself in Himself so part of His plan for man is to create heaven, earth, etc. I have come to believe that God created man (Adam) sin-ful, or as the word is defined by Strong's "to miss the mark." What is that "mark?" The glory of God. Adam sinned because he was created a sinner, or sin-ful, as there is only One God. If God is the standard by which everyone and everything is judged, and if Paul is correct that "I had not known sin but by the Law. For I had not known lust except the Law said 'thou shalt not covet." Wouldn't the command to Adam "thou shalt not eat of it [the fruit/tree]" also qualify as a law/command of "thou shalt not" showing that Adam was a sinner? Adam had not known disobedience except the law/command said "thou shalt not eat of it?" Sin comes from sinners, sin does not come from holy, and if man was anything less than holy he would sin. The last Adam proves this? |
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5 | God created man sin-ful? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241522 | ||
Hi Doc. I am also of the belief that Christ was the image of God when He created Adam/man. We are being conformed into the image of Christ, not Adam (Rom. 8:29). It is God that makes us holy and nothing we do. Our justification is in our salvation that because of Christ God declares us "Not Guilty!" of transgressing His Law(s). And now as a believer who has been atoned and justified, the "All Scripture" Paul spoke of in 2 Timothy 3:16-17 includes The Law, the Psalms, and the Prophets. Imaging that. When unatoned it was the Law that condemned us, but now as atoned beings in Christ it is the Law that God now uses to "instruct us in righteousness, for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, etc. | ||||||
6 | God created man sin-ful? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241537 | ||
Whoa! You mean that I saw/seen the same thing in Scripture as Calvin and Martin Luther? I have never read Calvin nor studied any of his works nor Martin Luther's, and here I am coming to the same conclusion as these two men. How about this: Paul says the Law is spiritual. Scripture also says man is flesh. As a fleshly man the Law kills, but to a born again spirit-man the Law cannot touch us. Spirit-ual cannot harm spirit-ual. I have read only the Scriptures and I have visited many various sites, but I have never read nor studied men of God in the past who have published books, and at places I have been called a Calvinist for my views and I hate that designation. I don't like being called a Calvinist. I prefer to be a Biblical Christian. That's the ONLY KIND there is in existence. If one's Christianity is not Biblical, then it is NOT Christianity. Bottom line. Thank you, Doc. |
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7 | God created man sin-ful? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241539 | ||
Good words, Doc. I will consider them. Thank you. |
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8 | God created man sin-ful? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241547 | ||
Hi EdB. No confusion here. I believe what I believe because the Scripture says it and my mind is wrapped around it. My edification is not complete. I have not reached my measure of faith because I am here still to talk about it. I was surprised only because I never read Calvin and here I am on the same page as he was. Or that J. Edwards and I see the same Jesus, or Charles Hodge, etc. It's even a blessing as a surprise when I post my faith and understanding and another believer also sees the same Jesus. But I do know that Calvin saw the same as Augustine who also saw the same as Paul (2 Tim. 2:2). It's a blessing, that all. | ||||||
9 | Has The GLORY of the LORD left the USA? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241548 | ||
I will say this, and it applies to not just the USA, but the world... In order for darkness to increase the Holy Spirit must withdraw. He is the One that is keeping evil in check. And in order for us to identify the antichrist the Holy Spirit must withdraw His Presence in the world. |
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10 | HCSB what's your opinion? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241568 | ||
Hello justme. My translation of preference is the King James Version of the Bible. Why? Again, to me it's a matter of authority. I believe God is Sovereign. I believe that God sits one man in a throne, and God removes one man from a throne (earthly throne, that is), and that for God's purpose not only sat King James I on the English throne, but also "moved/prompted" him to authorize a translation for the English-speaking people (his subject.) Now, I know in part that the Bishops Bible and maybe another earlier translation of the Hebrew and Greek Scriptures were "authorized," but for all intents and purposes so was the KJV as there is no one higher (on earth) than a king and I do not believe dictators, presidents, or any other leader of men or nation of people has any authority to translate the Scriptures or to order new translations. I believe that the unification of both Head of State and Head of Church is unified in Jesus Christ, but King James was also summarily head of state and head of church (Anglican), and that the only translation authorized for the English-speaking people is the King James Version. Anyone else care to give me your thoughts on this? |
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11 | Woman's place in Heaven | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241569 | ||
I'm kinda funny when it comes to "heaven." First, the word translated from the Hebrew is "shamayim" and I understand that there are only two "heavens" in creation: the first is the atmosphere from the ground to where outer-space begins, the second is outer-space (where the earth, moon, planets, stars) reside. If the question is "(what) is a woman's place in Christ?" I will answer that in spiritual matters they are of the same authority as the man, meaning, that in spiritual things there is neither male nor female and that a woman in Christ (anointing) in accordance to the order decree of God can be an apostle, prophet, evangelist, pastor-shepherd, or teacher (Eph. 4:11). That order being: God- Christ- everyone else in the Body of Christ. I also believe in Covenant the natural order established by God, that is: God_ Christ- man- woman. I also take 1 Corinthians 11:3 ... 1 Corinthians 11:3 (KJV) 3 But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God. ....that the man/male is head of the woman/female and that they do not have to be married. In other words, God has in Covenant given the care of His daughters to His sons to care for, defend, protect, teach, etc. |
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12 | Why do we have ""Free-Will"? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241573 | ||
Hello Terry. I do not believe God created angels or man with free will. To me free will is an illusion. Not even God has free will except ONE will, that is, Good. If my conclusions that there is only One God, there is none like Him, and God gives His glory (holiness, righteousness, etc.), to no one, and that by virtue of creation angel and man was created sin-ful ("missing the mark"), that neither angel nor man was created with any Deific attributes or "properties" and that the rerason why man (Adam) sinned was because he was created sin-ful ("missing the mark") Sin comes from sinner. Man sinned because he was a sinner. He is not a sinner because he sinned. Man does not have free will because even the will in man is in bondage to sin (sinfulness), and that that bondage prevents man from being free in any part of his creation or being. The reason why I believe free will in man is an illusion because although we can choose between chocolate and vanilla, or to wear the blue shirt or gray one, the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil was not a tree that made Adam good or evil, but only served to give him the KNOWLEDGE of good and evil. Some say that Adam was "neutral" or "innocent," but I discount that knowing that such "neutrality" or "innocence" was voided when he did good and obeyed God to name the animals. If man sinned because he was created a sinner, then there is no free will. Sin comes from sinner. Sin does not come from holy. The last Adam proved this. Jesus Christ was born sinless and did not sin because of that sinless-ness and His holiness. All our choices to do this or that comes from a will in bondage, and that only God has such a "free will" to do or not do a thing, but that God does not have a "will" to do evil, thus, God has a will to do or not do a thing, but does not have an experimental will to do evil as man certainly does. Ephesians 2:10 (KJV) 10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them. Worship, prayers, deeds from un-converted man is sin ("missing the mark") before God, and if these things are done void of the Holy Spirit, then they are sin-ful. The will is not free (saved and unsaved) because we are still in this body of this death and death is the penalty for sin (not necessarily doing acts of evil/sin. Are you following me on this? |
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13 | HCSB what's your opinion? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241576 | ||
Hi Doc. Don't get me wrong, the use of other translations are helpful as I get to see and read how other linguists translate the Hebrew and Greek in their translations into English. I don't have a NASB nor a Holman's nor an Amplified (which I like) but I do have the ASV, BBE, GW, YLT, NIV, LB, NKJV, that I sometimes refer to. I also use a Strong's for assistance in the Hebrew and Greek and sometimes go online for assistance from other linguists for comparison or run into others that don't use a Strong's but maybe a BDB or some other scholar(s) for the same purpose. It's just that when I was first born again (even before that) I had always used a KJV. Later, as I learned more on the Bible I learned that no translation is the perfect copy of the original manuscripts. Even the KJV. But God has used this translation to teach me His Word through the years. |
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14 | Why do we have ""Free-Will"? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241579 | ||
PART ONE: Hello Beja, Romans 5:12 (KJV) 12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: I used to believe that it was the act of sin by which one is made a sinner, but that understanding did not line up with Scripture. Then that means that if man (hereinto meaning Adam unless suggested otherwise), became a sinner because he sinned, then one would have to have the following as conclusion: 1. man was created holy and/or righteous and sin comes from holy [or that which is holy.] 2. God reduplicated or shared or gave His glory to another (Isa. 44:6; 45:22.) 3. The Law(s) of God are His Commands, and the Commands of God are Law as God means what He says and says what He means, and if it is the Law which shows us to be sinners (Paul said, "I had not known lust except the law said thou shalt not covet" the same can be applied to God's command to man "thou shalt not eat of it..." revealing the existence of a "thou shalt not" in the garden which shows man to be a sinner before he actually performed the act of sin. In other words [applied to man], "I had not known disobedience except the law [God] said 'thou shalt not eat of it.'" 4. If God is the standard by which everything and everyone is judged, and the only two Persons that can stand before a holy God are the Son and the Spirit, then man was eternal BEFORE he sinned and the Scripture saying, "Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever..." would mean man was not eternal and since eternal-ness is an attribute of God and man was not eternal, then in this alone he fell short of the glory of God and Scripture calls this "sin" ["missing the mark."] If man needed the Tree of Life to "live forever" then man was "[fallen] short of the glory of God," or as the word is defined, "sin," or "sin-ful" ["missing the mark," that "mark" being the glory of God.] 5. If man was holy or righteous or eternal (all attributes/nature of God), then man was created with Deific attributes/nature of God [God reduplicated/shared His glory], and if one is to possess one attribute/nature of God then they MUST by necessity possess ALL attributes/nature of God else the man would still fall short of the glory of God for one cannot be half-human and half-Deity. There is no such thing as being "half-pregnant." 6. In Romans 5:12 there is no mention of an act of sin by which man became a sinner, but it does state that by one man [existing, created] sin entered into the world and death by sin..." man would have eventually died even if he did not perform any acts of sin in his life, but that was impossible for the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil did not change man and make him a sinner, the tree only served to give man the KNOWLEDGE of his sinful-ness. |
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15 | Why do we have ""Free-Will"? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241580 | ||
PART TWO Romans 5:12 (KJV) 12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: 7. If it is the act(s) of sin by which man was made a sinner, then one cannot have the Doctrine of Imputation which declares that imputation is a nature-swap: 2 Corinthians 5:21 (KJV) 21 For he hath made him [to be] sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him. if it is our act(s) of sin that made us sinners, then the Scripture might say, "For He [God] made Him [Christ] to be the acts of sin that we might be made the righteous acts of God" which would leave our sin-ful nature still within us and truly offensive to God. The Doctrine of Imputation states that we are imputed the righteousness of God (Peter says "divine nature" 2 Pet. 1:4) and this occurred when Christ was imputed our sin-ful nature (2 Co. 5:21) on the cross and the decree of God that the penalty for sin is death, this is what killed Him. It wasn't the acts of sin that killed Christ, but the sin-ful nature the Holy Child of God was imputed (laid on Him) that killed Him, and if one is to be accurate and honest with Scripture it wasn't sins-many that Christ died for, but sins-ONE that He died for: the sin-ful nature of man in Adam when he was created. John says: "The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world" John 1:29 (KJV) in which the word "sin" is singular (meaning ONE sin that Christ died for - and this would mean the sin-ful nature that man was created with because as Scripture says, "there is only One God, there is none like Him, He gives His glory to no one." If God's Elect people were contemplated in the Mind of God as Holy and Righteous [they were], then He contemplated us as Holy and Righteous in Him because there is no death in God, there is no sin in God, then while we were an "idea" in His Mind, it was by virtue of being created with a body formed from dirt/clay, from created matter (by-product) and any "thing" outside of God is sin or sin-ful for the only Person(s) that can stand before a Holy God is God the Son and God the Holy Spirit. Christ died twice on the cross for the sin-ful nature of man which was the "default" existence of man because there is only One God, there is none like Him, and He gives His glory to no one. Christ died twice on the cross to atone for the two deaths in man [Adam]. Bear in mind that God is just. God does not lay the penalty of death for sin upon the innocent. If death was decreed by God in the garden for sin, then since the animals did not sin and yet they die. They, too, were created sin-ful, or as the word is defined, "missing the mark" [of the glory of God.] Here is one more thing to consider: we are STILL under the penalty for sin. Cemeteries all over the world testify to this truth. I hop I have answered your statements and questions. |
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16 | Woman's place in Heaven | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241597 | ||
Hello wdc. Come now, let us reason together, saith the LORD (Isa. 1:18). If I may... Gen. 1:1 the word is "shamayim" which is plural and means "to be lofty" "sky." Gen. 1:6-8 has this "heaven" as under and above - two expanses. This one was created by God but He divided them into under and above - two. The ministry of Lucifer is on earth: Isaiah 14:13 (KJV) 13 For thou hast said in thine heart, I will ascend into heaven, I will exalt my throne above the stars of God - I will sit also upon the mount of the congregation, in the sides of the north: Ezek. 28:14 - If Lucifer is the "outstretched" cherub that "covers" what did he cover? It appears he covered or "outstretched" above the throne or Presence of God on the mountain of God (Jerusalem?), and this would mean he was "hovering" a few inches to several yards above the throne/Presence of God in the first heaven or expanse. The text says he wanted to ascend into second heaven above the clouds (where the planets reside - for some reason). This is the second heaven. Since man had not been atoned in TIME the curtain in the Tabernacle prevented an unatoned person to be in the Holy Presence of God so no one in the OT ascended in death to God but were in another place: the grave - Sheol/Hades or Paradise/Abraham's bosom [generally to the Hebrew mind meant the Presence of God, but not actually IN the Presence of God] Where did Moses and Elijah come from at the Transfiguration? Were they kept in Eden where a cherub with a flaming sword kept it from being entered let alone found? And Paul, did he go to an "expanse" [heaven - third or otherwise,] that was on the planet? Maybe Eden? If He went into the Presence of God Himself then this heaven is not a place, but a Person. As I hold with God creating man sin-ful being that God cannot reduplicate His attributes of nature into created matter, the same follows with a "place" or "location." If third heaven is a place or location, and it is eternal, then God reduplicated His eternal-ness into a location, and again, if one is to possess one attribute of God they must by necessity possess ALL attributes of Deity. To date, I prefer to believe first and second heaven as part of creation. "Third heaven" is not a place, but a Person - God. |
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17 | Has The GLORY of the LORD left the USA? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241598 | ||
If one denies or reject the Life of Christ in His people would he be considered an antichrist? | ||||||
18 | HCSB what's your opinion? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241639 | ||
Am I a born again Christian baptized into the Body of Christ by the Holy Spirit? (1 Cor. 12:13) Are you? Have I ever said I was a KJV-Only person? I use the KJV because I believe it is the Authorized - by God - Version for the English-speaking people. One cannot get higher than a king. All these committees that group together in order to bring more confusion to the Church don't have any authority to make a translation for the English-speaking people. God is a God of order. |
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19 | HCSB what's your opinion? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241661 | ||
Question: Do the terms actually say "period of time?" Does truth have an expiration date? You quote some of the great minds in Christendom but would you disrespect them as you just now did to me? In the beginning I thought this site was different than the others, but you would ban Christ in me when you don't like someone like me, maybe crucify Him all over again. You muzzle the Holy Spirit and restrict Him in me as well as try to control my gift. It's NOT YOUR GIFT, it's MINE! Now, I ask you to remove your restriction and refrain from sinning against me voluntarily as you have because it is wrong to do to Christ in me as you are doing to me. Unjust, sin-ful, and heretical. But you have the button don't you, and it makes you feel powerful that you do such things to Christians that have a different insight into God and the things of God, especially His Word. You say you are respectful to people? I am HONEST with people. Believers are not to be given "respect," but love and "spect." The unbelievers do not get love that is commanded of God to brethren ONLY, they get re-spect," that is, to look again. Or will you also turn that adjective into a noun and pronoun? Incredible. Friends are thicker than God, huh? What a shame. "What you do to these the least of my brethren," Jesus said, "you have done it to me." You seriously can't defend the offender and attack the offended. What I told "justme" is true. Unless I should insinuate the person is a homosexual the way that person insinuated I was talking about Lockman (which I wasn't). Judge righteous judgment. |
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20 | Defend the Offender-Attack the Offended? | Bible general | jeremiah1five | 241663 | ||
QUOTE: (found on the page I view) "Note to viewers: This thread has been temporarily restricted from appearing on the homepage. If you submit a question, answer, or note to this thread, it will be processed and added to the thread, but will not appear on the homepage." I'd like to ask why is the Holy Spirit within me being muzzled and you attempting to control my gift and call in Christ? Christians should love honesty and truthfulness, not try to control God and God's servant. Why am I being treated so disrespectfully? First you defend the offender and false accuser and then you attack the offended. This is ungodly. |
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