Results 1 - 20 of 38
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: dwilliamson Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Are there different judgments? | Not Specified | dwilliamson | 217327 | ||
I would like the opinion/exposition of forum members in relation to the various judgements recorded in Scripture. In Matt 25v31-46 we read about "all nations" being gathered and the "Son of Man" shall "separate them one from another, as a shepherd divides his sheep from the goats". In Rev 20v11-15 we read about the great white throne judgment where "the dead, small and great stand before God" etc. In 1 Cor 3 v13-15, 4v5 another judgment appears to be in view - a judgment of the believers works. Notice on one occasion it is "all nations", on another "all the dead", and on another "Each man" who builds into the church. How do forum members view these judgements - as one and the same occasion, or as different occasions? |
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2 | Parts of Burnt Offering and Mark 12v30? | Not Specified | dwilliamson | 217497 | ||
Hello All Ref: Lev 1v6-9 "He shall then skin the burnt offering and cut it into its pieces. The sons of Aaron the priest shall put fire on the altar and arrange wood on the fire. Then Aaron's sons the priests shall arrange the pieces, the head and the suet over the wood which is on the fire that is on the altar. Its entrails, however, and its legs he shall wash with water. And the priest shall offer up in smoke all of it on the altar for a burnt offering, an offering by fire of a soothing aroma to the LORD." Just thinking about this scripture today. Does anyone see a link between this type of the Lord and the words spoken by the Lord in Mark 12v30 "AND YOU SHALL LOVE THE LORD YOUR GOD WITH ALL YOUR HEART, AND WITH ALL YOUR SOUL, AND WITH ALL YOUR MIND, AND WITH ALL YOUR STRENGTH"? |
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3 | Are there different judgments? | Bible general Archive 4 | dwilliamson | 217329 | ||
I would like the opinion/exposition of forum members in relation to the various judgements recorded in Scripture. In Matt 25v31-46 we read about "all nations" being gathered and the "Son of Man" shall "separate them one from another, as a shepherd divides his sheep from the goats". In Rev 20v11-15 we read about the great white throne judgment where "the dead, small and great stand before God" etc. In 1 Cor 3 v13-15, 4v5 another judgment appears to be in view - a judgment of the believers works. Notice on one occasion it is "all nations", on another "all the dead", and on another "Each man" who builds into the church. How do forum members view these judgements - as one and the same occasion, or as different occasions? |
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4 | Are there different judgments? | Bible general Archive 4 | dwilliamson | 217342 | ||
Thanks CDBJ, I appreciate that. So, do you believe the order in which these judgments take place is as follows: 1. 1Cor3. When the Lord returns to the air to receive his church/bride to Himself (1 Thess 4v13-18, 1 Co 15v51-58). At this time, or shortly after will be the Judgement seat of Christ where the works/attitudes of Christians will be judged and their rewards will be determined. This will precede the Tribulation period. 2. Matt 25. This judgement will take place after the tribulation period and before the setting up of the earthly Kingdom for the millenium. What will here be decisive will be how, during the tribulation period, the various nations have dealt with the Lords earthly people (the Jews). Their attitude to the Jew in that day will reveal whether they have faith or not! 3. Rev 20. This is after the millenium when all that will die will have died. Thus the "dead small and great stand before God". This refers to those who are not saved only. Very solemn. "O awful day, who would not be, Sheltered O Lamb of God in Thee." |
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5 | free will or predestine ? | Bible general Archive 4 | dwilliamson | 217808 | ||
Hello Joel There are many passages in scripture in support of a "free will" as it is referred to. The expression itself is unscriptural in that it implies that the will is not affected by other influences. Whether we believe in human responsibility or not (and I do - very strongly) we can't help but see that the will of man has been and is affected by the fall. As to Scriptures that support a "choice" on the part of man see the following: For example, every appeal by God for the sinner to "believe" automatically assumes that the person who receives such a command CAN respond to it. It is worth noting that on each occasion that this appeal is given, the word "believe" is in the active voice, it is never passive. The fact also that the appeal to "believe" or to "call" etc is shown to be universal in character (rather than to the "elect" only) is shown in such well known scriptures as: John 3v16 "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life". Romans 10v11-13 "For the scripture saith, Whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed. For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him. For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved", 1 Timothy 2v3-4 "For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour; Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth". God holds MAN responsible for not believing - see John 3v18 "He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God." In the consideration of Scripture (see for example Romans 1-3) God holds man responsible for HIS OWN ACTIONS. When the Lord Jesus was here he made a statement concerning Jerusalem which is worth noting in Matt 23v37 and Luke 13v34 "O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, which killest the prophets, and stonest them that are sent unto thee; how often would I have gathered thy children together, as a hen doth gather her brood under her wings, and ye would not!" Notice here that the Lord says "I would have gathered...but ye would not". This implies a free-will on the part of those who rejected Him. To be honest, the principle of choice is a part of the whole fabric of scripture. Man is responsible for the choices he makes in every sphere - because he has been given a "will" which can be exercised in one of 2 ways - obedience or disobedience to God. This is by no means an overview of the argument for man having a choice, it is just a few verses which spring to mind that imply such a thing. In all of this we are not setting aside the fact of Divine Purpose. In Him David |
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6 | destruction of earth | Gen 8:21 | dwilliamson | 219838 | ||
Hello templescroll The full quotation (KJV) from Genesis 8:21-22 is as follows: "And the LORD smelled a sweet savour; and the LORD said in his heart, I will not again curse the ground any more for man's sake; for the imagination of man's heart is evil from his youth; neither will I again smite any more every thing living, as I have done. While the earth remaineth, seedtime and harvest, and cold and heat, and summer and winter, and day and night shall not cease". In 2 Peter 3:9-13 the following is noted: "The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance. But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up. Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of persons ought ye to be in all holy conversation and godliness, Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat? Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness". Gods promise in Genesis 8 is that "everything living" will not be destroyed, and this is qualified by "as I have done". A further expansion of the promise is given in that "While the earth remaineth, seedtime and harvest, and cold and heat, and summer and winter, and day and night shall not cease". However, as per the quote from 2 Peter 3, there is no soubt that God will judge the world again - not by a flood, but by fire. So, to answer your question "Would an inevitable destruction of the earth and its inhabitants by nuclear war or global melt down prove the non-existence of God or His impotence?" If there was a nuclear war in which there was widespread destruction upon earth I personally feel that this would in no way "prove the non-existence of God". Indeed, if we examine the book of Revelation, I believe that it reveals to us that there will be widespread death and destruction upon earth during the Tribulation period. As to global melt-down - the passage in 2 Peter 3 confirms that the "elements will melt with fervent heat" - this moves on to a later period when God will renew the earth and the heavens again. I hope this helps to clarify. This reply is a bit scattered but i hope understandable! David |
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7 | Types of angels | Ex 4:3 | dwilliamson | 217607 | ||
There are "elect angels" (1 Timothy 5v21) and "fallen angels" (Jude 1v6). I take it that it is the elect angels which your query concerns. There is the Archangel Michael (Daniel 10v21, 12v1; Jude 1v9; Revelation 12v7). Another "angel" that is named in Scripture is Gabriel (see Daniel 8v16, 9v21; Luke 1v19,26). The "cherubim" appear to be a class of angel - first mentioned in Genesis 3v24, they seem to represent in some way Gods righteous character. They are mentioned on numerous occasions throughout the Scripture - "two cherubim of Gold" covered the "mercy-seat" in the tabernacle. The "seraphim" of Isaiah Ch6 are another class of angelic being it would appear. Possibly (and I say possibly because I dont know!) the "living creatures" of Revelation Ch 4 are another class of angel. Also in Colossians Ch 1v16 the Scripture states concerning the Lord Jesus "For by Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities--all things have been created through Him and for Him." I take it (from the background and context of these verses)that the "invisible" things of which Paul writes are further described as "thrones...dominions...rulers...authorities" and these are all grades of angels. I take it that the use of the term "Angel of the Lord" in the Old Testament is a reference to a Christophany rather than an "angel" per se. I'm sure others will have more information to add. Hope this is helpful. Regards, David |
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8 | Possible typo | Num 24:9 | dwilliamson | 219858 | ||
EmmyJo If you look on an on-line dictionary, you will find that "couched" is a word! :-) It means something similar to "crouched" to be honest but it is a word in its own right. I checked it up online and came up with the following definitions (among many others): "to crouch; bend; stoop". "to lie in ambush or in hiding; lurk" So, in summary - I don't think your expensive Bible has a typo! David |
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9 | Star of Bethleham | Matt 2:1 | dwilliamson | 219840 | ||
Hello again templesccroll I think that is an unusual interpretation of Matthew 2 to say the least. The magi are said to have "worshipped" when they saw the child - something that Satan would never lead anyone to do! It is worth noting that the "star" is never referred to in scripture as the "star of Bethlehem". The reason for this is important I believe. The star is referred to as "his star in the east" (v2) and also in v9-10 we read "the star, which they saw in the east, went before them, till it came and stood over where the young child was. When they saw the star, they rejoiced with exceeding great joy". The order of events seems to me to have been as follows: 1. The magi saw a star in the east. This star somehow (possibly through their knowledge of OT prophecy and the fact that the Messiah was widely expected at that period) caused them to recognise that the "King of the Jews" had been born. 2. The magi began their journey to Jerusalem - evidently assuming that the King of the Jews would be in Jerusalem - however they discovered a false king in Herod. 3. The "chief priests and scribes of the people" correctly advised that the Messiah would be BORN in Bethlehem. 4. The wise men, sent on their way begin to move toward Bethlehem and then "the star, which they saw in the east, went before them, till it came and stood over where the young child was. When they saw the star, they rejoiced with exceeding great joy". I believe that the star directed the wise men NOT to Bethlehem but to Nazareth. It would appear that the Lord was no longer the "babe" when they arrived, but rather a "young child". He was a child of "two years old" or "under" (see v16). When we compare with Luke Ch2 we discover (v39) that, from the earliest history of the child Jesus upon earth He was in Nazareth - "And when they had performed all things according to the law of the Lord, they returned into Galilee, to their own city Nazareth" (this was a matter of days after the birth of Jesus). 5. Thus, it was from Nazareth that Joseph, Mary and the child journeyed into Egypt, and it was to Nazareth they returned. 6. The magi returned to their own country without telling Herod where the young child was - thus Bethlehem became the object of his anger, rather than Nazareth. 7. The flight into Egypt as commanded in a dream to Joseph was to put the Lord completely beyond the reach of Herod and to fulfil the Scripture "Out of Egypt have I called My Son". I realise there are some difficulties with this interpretation of the order of events but I think there are difficulties whatever way we consider the passages and seek to dovetail them. I stand to be corrected! David |
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10 | Star of Bethleham | Matt 2:1 | dwilliamson | 219902 | ||
Temple The way in which your question is phrased leads me to wonder whether there is point in answering. I take it you fully accept the scriptural account? The wise men were searching for the One "born king of the Jews". The natural place for them to go was the royal court! They obviously were not aware of the details of Herods insanely jealous nature. Anyway, the scripture has nothing negative to say about their actions. They were a few gentiles who came to worship the King when the Jews had no heart for Him. They were obedient when they were warned to return by a different route. David |
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11 | What is love? | Matt 22:37 | dwilliamson | 217289 | ||
I think its important to note that love as urged often upon us in the Bible is much more than a feeling as has been stated by MJH. When we read that "God so loved the world..." it is not merely stating that He has a feeling of kindness towards the world, though this be true! The love in question has its root not in the emotions but in the will and therefore, even though at times we might dislike what a person does and is, we can still choose to love that person! Our "love" towards God is a direct response to His love for us and is the result of us choosing to love Him, which will be evident in our obedience to His word. Of course the greatest example of this "love" was the Lord Jesus Himself. dwilliamson |
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12 | Greek of Luke 1.36: hosei/about | Luke 1:56 | dwilliamson | 219563 | ||
Rick Very interesting discussion! May it not be that Mary, remembering her status as betrothed to Joseph, was seeking to avoid all the publicity that would undoubtedly ensue when news broke about the birth of John? She herself would have been 3 months pregnant at that time, and no reason could be given which would be acceptable to those who would enquire! Noting Marys character and the fact that it would appear that she had not yet revealed her state to Joseph - would it not be consistent with what is revealed of her to assume that he would be the first (apart from Elizabeth) to know of her situation? Thus, as Elizabeth hid herself, so did Mary. And when the time came for John to be born, Mary went back home and was again in contact with Joseph, at which time "she was found with child of the Holy Ghost". Just a different thought on the passage. In Him David |
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13 | Greek of Luke 1.36: hosei/about | Luke 1:56 | dwilliamson | 219567 | ||
Rick My understanding of the subject is evidently slightly different than you. I'll have to look into it again! I appreciate that betrothal was much stronger than our "engagement" but I believe that during the betrothal period: 1. The husband and wife did not live together. 2. There was no intimate physical relationship. What the betrothal period allowed for was (among other things) any previous misdemeanour by either party to come to light prior to the "marriage". Thus allowing for the "putting away" which was being considered by Joseph before he was informed as to the cause. Well, as has been said in relation to this section there is no definitive 'thus saith the Lord' answer as to the timing of Marys return to Nazareth. We are left to our own impression so we can't be too dogmatic! As you have clearly said "He soon found out from an authoritative source that everything was OK." And what faith and obedience he showed when he "took unto him his wife and knew her not until she had brought forth her first-born Son and called His name Jesus". In Him David |
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14 | Our authority in His name? | John 6:29 | dwilliamson | 217674 | ||
BradK I believe that the "sign gifts" are no longer active today. However, without trying to bring you off on a tangent here - Could you clarify/qualify the statement you have made "Christ was limited while on earth"? Thanks David |
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15 | Our authority in His name? | John 6:29 | dwilliamson | 217677 | ||
Dear BradK I am sorry to have to disagree with you on both counts. I am in work presently and dont have the time either to discuss this very important question at the moment but possibly another thread should be started on this. Briefly. I don't believe that we can say that the Lord had limited attributes of Deity upon earth - to have limited attributes of Deity is necessarily to be less than God. The attributes of Deity are what mark God out to be Who He is! So if a Person is not Omniscient, Omnipresent, Omnipotent, Eternal etc we can safely say that such is not God. Philippians 2 must be kept in its context. There are a number of examples in that chapter of "the mind of Christ" - Paul is seeking to inculcate an ATTITUDE within the church at Philippi and he gives examples of that attitude. What is that attitude? "look not every man on his own things but every man also on the things of other". It is an attitude whereby we seek the benefit of others. Now how does this apply to the Lord? He is eternally "in the form of God", personally He cannot change but He does change His position. Knowing all that He is, recognising that He is equal with God in position, He "empties Himself" - this cannot be of Deity or He is not God - the point is simply that He does not act for Himself but rather for others! This stoop for the benefit of others is then described in the further statements "took upon Him the form of a servant etc..." Personally I would appeal - Do not read into Philippians 2 more than what is intended in the context. How could our Lord be an example by the setting aside of attributes? He is an example because, although He IS what He is, He is willing to stoop to think upon "the things of others". Another statement you have made is "He was limited to a fleshly body, so that He wasnt omnipresent while on earth". Can I ask - when God lived among men in the Tabernacle in the wilderness "within the veil, between the 2 cherubim" did that mean that He was not Omnipresent? Did that mean He was nowhere else? "The Word was God...the Word became flesh and tabernacled among us" (John 1). Not meaning to cause any arguments on this most sacred of subjects - the Person of Christ - but I do feel we need to be careful limiting Him in any way. One final thing - I know that there are Scriptures which are often quoted at this point which appear to limit Him - these again must be read in their context and against the background of the clear teaching of Scripture that Christ is God. In Him David |
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16 | Our authority in His name? | John 6:29 | dwilliamson | 217680 | ||
Hello Tim, I thought that these might come up! As to the Matt 24v36 passage - I'll get back to you later as I'm not at home at the min. As to the Luke 2v52 passage I have no problems at all. Wisdom is the practical application of knowledge. The Lord grew in the experiential application of knowledge throughout His pathway upon earth. There are things that were not experienced prior to His coming that He experienced upon earth - we know that from the Hebrew epistle. You are aware that it has now been stated that the One Who is "God with us" (Matt 1) was not omnipresent and was not omniscient. At this rate it will not be long before someone declares that He was not eternal or omnipotent. And then I ask you (I speak as a fool) is He God at all? I submit that when the Lord became incarnate He was not God minus anything, He was God plus holy humanity. That is the way Scripture speaks of His incarnation. (Heb 2, Matt 1, Luke 1, Romans 9 etc). Will post later DV. In Him David |
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17 | Our authority in His name? | John 6:29 | dwilliamson | 217719 | ||
Medchill Thank you very much. My brother Andrew does log off completely, then I go into the computer at a completely different time and log in under my id. The home screen shows "Welcome dwilliamson" but then when I post the author is shown as AWilliamson! The reason this post is under dwilliamson is because I am using the work computer. Confusing! Any further advice, let me know. Thanks. In Him David |
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18 | Our authority in His name? | John 6:29 | dwilliamson | 217728 | ||
BradK Thanks for your reply to my query. Sorry for my delay as I have been so busy this last few days. I will say that I never thought that you were anything else than sincere and desirous to uphold sound doctrine. I agree with much of your post but not with the following: "He took upon himself limitations of place (space) and of knowledge and of power, though still on earth retaining more of these than any mere man. It is here that men should show restraint and modesty, though it is hard to believe that Jesus limited himself by error of knowledge and certainly not by error of conduct." [A.T Robertson, Word Pictures] I do agree with further statements such as "The words “made Himself nothing” are, literally, “He emptied Himself.” “Emptied,” from the Greek kenoo, points to the divesting of His self-interests, but not of His deity." and "In His incarnation He was fully God and fully man at the same time. He was God manifest in human flesh (John 1:14)." [Bible Knowledge Commentary]. My issue with what is taught at times concerning the Lord Jesus is that human reasoning is put beyond Divine revelation. Consider the following: 1. We acknowledge that the Lord asked questions of men BUT read EVERY chapter in Johns Gospel and note the references in every chapter which reveal the infinite knowledge of the Lord. There were no limitations as to His knowledge. 2. We acknowledge that the Scripture says He was "crucified through weakness" BUT he still managed to "uphold all things by the word of His power" (Hebrews 1). There was no limitation as to His Power. 3. The Lord presently has a "fleshly body" in the sense that it is a body of "flesh and bone" and he sits "on the right hand of the majesty on high" BUT He still promises (as He did upon earth) that "where two or three are gathered together in my Name, there am I in the midst of them" (Matt 18v20). There was no limitations as to his "place". Thus, He is both God and Man - he passed through the experiences true to humanity, but He never relinquished His Deity to do so. This is one of the facts that should draw out worshio from our hearts! J B Watson noted ""How do both deity and humanity dwell in one Person at the same time? How can Christ on the one hand be God and yet be verily man? How did the divine attributes dwell with those that are proper to manhood? How, if He is God and is thus omniscient, does He learn? I do not know. This is a revelation for faith; it is not a subject for prying and investigation. It is one before which we are intended to stand with worshipping hearts and not one into which we are intended to look with our poor cheap microscopes. Nay, here is the revelation - perfect God - perfect Man - one Christ" [J B Watson, Our Matchless Lord p. 22] The same writer noted "The Bible is full of truths which we do not have the intellectual power to reconcile". This is what I believe. Thanks In Him David |
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19 | The Suffering of the Church | Acts 8:2 | dwilliamson | 217606 | ||
Searcher A marvellous story. See my personal profile. The suffering of those martyrs is the means which God used to cause me to desire to know Him more. The discipleship statements of the Lord Jesus promise a path of suffering for the believer in Him. See eg. Matthew 8v19-20. Here the "scribe" who came to the Lord promises to "follow...whithersoever Thou goest" - the Lord has to remind the scribe that "the foxes have holes, the birds of the air have nests, but the Son of Man hath not where to lay His head"! In other words, to follow the Lord Jesus is necessarily to walk a path of suffering in this world. Is this not the world that rejected Him from His birth, is it not the world that crucified the Lord? How then can His servants "reign as kings" in His absence (see 1 Corinthians Ch4v8-16.) Think of the sufferings of David the "sweet Psalmist of Israel" - if he had not experienced his suffering would we have had the Psalms which so eloquently express the truly pious heart? We would be the poorer without them! In Colossians 1v24 Paul records "Now I rejoice in my sufferings for your sake, and in my flesh I do my share on behalf of His body, which is the church, in filling up what is lacking in Christ's afflictions" (NASB). Evidently Paul does not speak of the atoning sufferings of Christ - in which no person but Christ Himself had a part! He speaks rather of suffering as associated with Christ "on behalf of His body, which is the church". Now, having said all of this, it seems necessary to state that Satan does have a part often in suffering. Job is the prime example of this BUT it must be recognised that God was ever in control and Satan could not go beyond the limits God set! Thus Satan, with all his power and cruelty is unable to cause one particle of suffering to a Christian without the prior knowledge of God Himself. In Him David |
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20 | The Suffering of the Church | Acts 8:2 | dwilliamson | 217608 | ||
Hope I dont presume to go too far by adding the following verses which I found in an old magazine called "Things New and Old". No author details are given. Have Ye Counted the Cost? Have ye counted the cost! Have ye counted the cost! Ye warriors of the Cross? Are ye fixed in heart, for your Master's sake, To suffer all earthly loss? Can ye bear the scoff of the worldly-wise, As ye pass by pleasure's bower, To watch with your Lord, on the mountain top, Through the dreary midnight hour? In the power of His might! In the power of His might! Who was made thro' weakness strong, Ye shall overcome in the fearful fight! And sing His victory song! But count ye the cost; yea, count ye the cost -The forsaking all ye have! Then take up your cross and follow your Lord, Not thinking your life to save! By the " blood of the Lamb," - By the " blood of the Lamb,"' - By the faithful witness Word! Not loving your lives unto death for Him, Ye shall triumph with your Lord! So count ye the cost; yea, count ye the cost, Ye warriors of the cross! Yet in royal faith and in royal love, Count all selfish gain but loss.' O! the banner of love! O! the banner of love! It will cost you a pang to hold! But 'twill float in triumph the field above. Though your heart's blood stain its fold. Ye may count the cost! ye may count the cost Of all Egyptians treasure! But the riches of Christ ye cannot count - His love ye cannot measure! In Him David |
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