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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Robbert Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Zodhiates and Gen 15:18 | Not Specified | Robbert | 144251 | ||
I use the Zodhiates NASB Key Word Study Bible and noticed that he states in the note concerning Genesis 15:18 (p. 22) that the promise concerning the land to Israel was conditional. Isn't this an unconditional promise to Israel? | ||||||
2 | Why "miracles" instead of "wonders" | Not Specified | Robbert | 183459 | ||
I noticed that the NASV uses the word "miracles" instead of "wonders" in Exodus 3:20. Most if not all other translations use "wonder" in that verse. Why did the NASV translators choose "miracles" here? If one uses such interpretative methods as the 'law of first mention' then miracle would start here. | ||||||
3 | Kingdom of God vs. Kingdom of Heaven | Not Specified | Robbert | 193295 | ||
How is the Kingdom of God different from the Kingdom of Heaven in Matt? Covenant scholars claim that they are the same thing, while dispensational scholars (Scofield) claim that they are distinctive. So, I'm not sure when I read Matt if I should see them as the same or different. | ||||||
4 | Are faith and works an integral unit? | Not Specified | Robbert | 194462 | ||
My question concerns the issue of faith vs. works but is not asking exactly that. I heard that during biblical times one's faith and one's actions were considered a whole. That's why faith and works cannot be separated. So when in Deut 6:25 it is stated that doing the law will result in righteousness, it is not works that earns the righteousness but it is assumed the works comes from an intense desire to live the meaning of the law. Also, the faith vs. works issue in The Book of James has not to do with "is works also necessary" but a reflection of the cultural assumption that works follows faith and each exists as an integral part of the person--they cannot exist separate from one another. Am I correct that biblical persons only viewed works and faith as a unit and never understood them as being separate? | ||||||
5 | Gospels are OT books? | Not Specified | Robbert | 211544 | ||
I heard a pastor claim that the gospels (Mt, Mk, Lk, and Jn) are actually Old Testament books because Hebrews 9:16 states that "For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth." The point made was that until Christ actually died on the cross everything up to then thus is Old Testament. This doesn't sound right to me. I'd appreciate your comments. Robbert |
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6 | Zodhiates and Gen 15:18 | Gen 15:18 | Robbert | 144259 | ||
I use the Zodhiates NASB Key Word Study Bible and noticed that he states in the note concerning Genesis 15:18 (p. 22) that the promise concerning the land to Israel was conditional. Isn't this an unconditional promise to Israel? | ||||||
7 | Why "miracles" instead of "wonders" | Ex 3:20 | Robbert | 183500 | ||
I noticed that the NASV uses the word "miracles" instead of "wonders" in Exodus 3:20. Most if not all other translations use "wonder" in that verse. Why did the NASV translators choose "miracles" here? If one uses such interpretative methods as the 'law of first mention' then miracle would start here. | ||||||
8 | Kingdom of God vs. Kingdom of Heaven | Matt 5:20 | Robbert | 193302 | ||
How is the Kingdom of God different from the Kingdom of Heaven in Matt? Covenant scholars claim that they are the same thing, while dispensational scholars (Scofield) claim that they are distinctive. So, I'm not sure when I read Matt if I should see them as the same or different. | ||||||
9 | Gospels are OT books? | John 1:1 | Robbert | 211546 | ||
I heard a pastor claim that the gospels (Mt, Mk, Lk, and Jn) are actually Old Testament books because Hebrews 9:16 states that "For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth." The point made was that until Christ actually died on the cross everything up to then thus is Old Testament. This doesn't sound right to me. I'd appreciate your comments. Robbert |
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10 | Does Jesus teach OT doctrine? | John 1:1 | Robbert | 211549 | ||
Thanks for your reply kelly. I am aware of the purported dates of the gospel writings and, I'm not sure that simply a date qualifies a text for inclusion in the NT. Even though the gospels were written perhaps long after Jesus died, they still contain material that does not "fit" the overall NT theme of believing in the death of Jesus Christ and the shedding of His Blood for the forgiveness of sins. That's what the pastor I mentioned was noting. Recall that Jesus told one person to keep the commandments and then follow Him in order to gain eternal life. Jesus did not say: Believe in my death and resurrection (which will take place). Thus, Jesus would give an OT response to questions about salvation in the gospels. Why doesn't Jesus talk about His death to everyone who asks about salvation? The pastor I mentioned thinks that's what qualifies the gospels as OT books. It's not until Paul that a clear understanding of salvation is presented. Again, the pastor's view that the gospels are not NT sounds very odd to me. What does the BibleStudyForum community think? | ||||||
11 | Does Jesus teach OT doctrine? | John 1:1 | Robbert | 211558 | ||
Thanks John for your thoughts. Did you notice that all the scripture you cited was not found in the gospels! That's the pastor's point--althogh the gospels mention Jesus' upcoming death, you can only find the death and resurrection message of salvation for the forgiveness of sins in Paul. | ||||||
12 | Does Jesus teach OT doctrine? | John 1:1 | Robbert | 211559 | ||
Thanks Doc. The pastor I mentioned I hear on Paltalk, and he is a midacts dispensationalist who I think has very odd notions. To clarify his point, he states that salvation is only possible today by believing in the death and resurrection of Jesus. That's something that couldn't be done in the gospels since Jesus hadn't yet died. One could know about Jesus' divine nature, etc. as you state, but could not believe on Him for the forgiveness of sins. Paul alone provides that information. I'd appreciate any further help on understanding this issue. | ||||||
13 | What does Hebrews 9:16 mean? | John 1:1 | Robbert | 211787 | ||
Hebrews 9:16 states that "For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth." How does the panel interpret the meaning of this verse? In a previous question, I noted that I heard a pastor claim that the gospels couldn't be NT books because of a literal interpretation of the above verse. I disagree with the pastor but I still don't know what the verse means. | ||||||
14 | What are the implications's of this v.? | John 1:1 | Robbert | 211790 | ||
Thanks, I do understand your reply but what does it mean to say that the New Covenant did not go into effect until Christ's death? What are the implications of that remark? Does it mean that the gospels are OT books since they tell the events of Christ's life before His death, etc.? | ||||||
15 | Same question | John 1:1 | Robbert | 211792 | ||
As noted, I'd like an explanation of the implications of this verse. | ||||||
16 | Same question | John 1:1 | Robbert | 211794 | ||
I've been on this question because I haven't received an answer that bears directly on it. I have done study in Hebrews but still find this verse perplexing--at least from my perspective. From your response it's obvious that the panel cannot answer this question either, since you put it back on me. | ||||||
17 | Same question | John 1:1 | Robbert | 211799 | ||
Thanks Tim. Well, I guess I'm not explaining myself very well. The comment came up on paltalk that until Christ actually died the New Covenant wasn't in effect. One implication of this statement is that the gospels are not part of the NT in some sense since Christ had not yet died when the content of the gospels took place. If true, then the gospels are more like transitional books between the OT and the NT than they are NT books (although they were written after Christ's death their content took place during the time of Christ). I wondered what the panel thought. | ||||||
18 | Are faith and works an integral unit? | Romans | Robbert | 194466 | ||
My question concerns the issue of faith vs. works but is not asking exactly that. I heard that during biblical times one's faith and one's actions were considered a whole. That's why faith and works cannot be separated. So when in Deut 6:25 it is stated that doing the law will result in righteousness, it is not works that earns the righteousness but it is assumed the works comes from an intense desire to live the meaning of the law. Also, the faith vs. works issue in The Book of James has not to do with "is works also necessary" but a reflection of the cultural assumption that works follows faith and each exists as an integral part of the person--they cannot exist separate from one another. Am I correct that biblical persons only viewed works and faith as a unit and never understood them as being separate? | ||||||
19 | Are faith and works an integral unit? | Gal 3:7 | Robbert | 194469 | ||
My question concerns the issue of faith vs. works but is not asking exactly that. I heard that during biblical times one's faith and one's actions were considered a whole. That's why faith and works cannot be separated. So when in Deut 6:25 it is stated that doing the law will result in righteousness, it is not works that earns the righteousness but it is assumed the works comes from an intense desire to live the meaning of the law. Also, the faith vs. works issue in The Book of James has not to do with "is works also necessary" but a reflection of the cultural assumption that works follows faith and each exists as an integral part of the person--they cannot exist separate from one another. Am I correct that biblical persons only viewed works and faith as a unit and never understood them as being separate? | ||||||
20 | Does "Dispersion" refer to Christians? | James 1:1 | Robbert | 193231 | ||
What evidence is there that "dispersion" refers to Christians in this verse? I'm looking for resources that support that 1 Peter was to Jewish Christians and not Jews only. | ||||||
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