Results 1 - 13 of 13
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Results from: Notes Author: BadDog Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | One born of God cannot sin? | 1 John 3:9 | BadDog | 144449 | ||
Hank, I imagine that I didn't make myself very clear. Of course - no one can come close to living a life completely free from sin. Obviously, looking at 1:6-10 and 2:1,2, John expected that his readers would have to deal with sin. I agree with what you've said here, BTW. The penalty for our sin has already been paid - once for all. The purpose of "confession" is not to get sins forgiven that otherwise would result in hell-fire. That's been dealt with once-for-all. 1 John 1:3 what we have seen and heard we also declare to you, so that you may have fellowship along with us; and indeed our fellowship is with the Father and with His Son Jesus Christ. This is what I believe to be the thematic verse for 1st John. 1st John is all about how to have fellowship with God (and other believers). Now I imagine that no one on this board really thinks that John is saying here that a true believer does not sin AT ALL - EVER. So then, just why did John express it in 1 John 3:6-9 like this? Was he trying to confuse us? Obviously not. It only makes sense IMO in view of the Cerenthus heresy which was rampant at the time. Remember that John did start out this letter in a similar manner to his gospel with "That which was from the/a beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have beheld and handled with our hands, concerning the Word of Life." This is a clear reference to Jesus in the flesh - they saw and touched Him. And John's reference to "beginning" here negates Cerenthus' claim that the man Jesus had a beginning separate from the Son of God. You see, at the time of the writing of this letter, John faced a serious heretical teaching. His chief opponent was Cerenthus. (Cerenthus taught that when the man Jesus was baptized that at that point that the Son of God entered into Him. Then, when He gave up His spirit on the cross, the Son of God left the man Jesus. He did not believe in a literal resurrection.) What developed form this heretical teaching was a "docetist" claim that when we sinned it was merely our body, our flesh, and hence didn't matter. Of course, this isn't true. Whenever we sin such sinning does not proceed from God... ever. And that, IMO, was what John meant by saying that one "born again" does not sin. IMO the key to understanding 1 John is just that - the absoluteness... When we use expressions instead of "continue in sin" or "keep on sinning" we miss John's point. 1 John 1:5 - Now this is the message we have heard from Him and declare to you: God is light, and there is absolutely no darkness in Him. 1 John 1:6 - If we say, "We have fellowship with Him," and walk in darkness, we are lying and are not practicing/doing the truth. 1 John 1:8 - If we say, "We have no sin," we are deceiving ourselves, and the truth is not in us. 1 John 1:10 - If we say, "We have not sinned," we make Him a liar, and His word is not in us. 1 John 2:2 - He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not only for ours, but also for those of the whole world. 1 John 2:4 - The one who says, "I have come to know Him," without keeping His commands, is a liar, and the truth is not in him. 1 John 2:9 - The one who says he is in the light but hates his brother is in the darkness until now. 1 John 2:11 - But the one who hates his brother is in the darkness, walks in the darkness, and doesn't know where he's going, because the darkness has blinded his eyes. 1 John 2:15, 16 - Do not love the world or the things that belong to the world. If anyone loves the world, love for the Father is not in him. Because everything that belongs to the world ... is not from the Father, but is from the world. 1 John 2:22, 23 - Who is the liar, if not the one who denies that Jesus is the Messiah? He is the antichrist, the one who denies the Father and the Son. 23 No one who denies the Son can have the Father; he who confesses the Son has the Father as well. 1 John 2:25, 26 - And this is the promise that He Himself made to us: eternal life. I have written these things to you about those who are trying to deceive you. 1 John 2:29 - If you know that He is righteous, you know this as well: everyone who does what is right has been born of Him. 1 John 3:4 - Everyone who commits sin also breaks the law; sin is the breaking of law. 1 John 3:5 - You know that He was revealed so that He might take away sins, and there is no sin in Him. 1 John 3:6 - Everyone who remains (abides) in Him does not sin; everyone who sins has not seen Him or known Him. OK, gotta stop here - post getting too long. BD |
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2 | One born of God cannot sin? | 1 John 3:9 | BadDog | 144418 | ||
Of course, just saying such a thing sounds ludicrous. But our new nature - the one created by the Spirit when we trusted in Him, is not able to sin. BD |
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3 | RU saying some sanctified aren't saved? | Heb 10:26 | BadDog | 63546 | ||
Joe, Thanks much - this was a very good response to my question. The 1 Corin. 7 passage is a good example of the general use of "sanctified" for unbelievers as meaning "set apart for a purpose," and you are right. However, FWIW, this idea of being set apart for a purpose really has to do w/ its use re. things according to the lexicons. When referring to people, it, in general, has the idea of "making holy." However, the context of Heb. 10:29 makes it clear that inward sanctification is in view, IMO: 10:19 "Therefore BRETHREN, since WE have confidence to enter the holy place by the blood of Jesus... and since..." 10:22 - 25 several "let us" - The author is including the readers w/ himself as believers in this exhortation. 10:26 "For if we sin willfully (The NASB "go-on sinning willfully" is really stretching a simple present tense in Gk.) after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, 27 but a terrifying expectation of judgment and THE FURY OF A FIRE WHICH WILL CONSUME THE ADVERSARIES. (capitalized by NASB as an OT quote). 10:30 - "... And again, "THE LORD WILL JUDGE HIS PEOPLE." (They are HIS PEOPLE, not unbelievers) 10:32ff "But remember the former days, when, *after being enlightened* (these are believers who are enlightened), you endured a great conflict of sufferings, 33 partly by being made a public spectacle through reproaches and tribulations (They suffered as believers for Christ), and partly by becoming sharers with those who were so treated. 34 For you showed sympathy to the prisoners and accepted joyfully the seizure of your property, knowing that you have for yourselves a better possession and a lasting one. (They suffered all those things before because, like Abraham, they were looking to a better possession - *a lasting one.* How can these not be believers?!) 10:35, 36 "Therefore, do not throw away your confidence, which has a great *reward*. 36 For you have need of endurance, so that when you have done the will of God, you may receive what was promised. (Believers are rewarded for faithful service - "Well done thou good and faithful servant" Unbelievers are not offered the possibility of rewards.) Now we come to 10:39 - 38, 39 BUT MY RIGHTEOUS ONE SHALL LIVE BY FAITH; AND IF HE SHRINKS BACK, MY SOUL HAS NO PLEASURE IN HIM. (This is again cap. by NASB as OT quote) 39 But we are not of those who shrink back to destruction, but of those who have faith to the preserving of the soul (SUXH - is often best translated LIFE, as in 1 Peter 3:20 - "8 persons/lives were brought safely...). Preserving of the soul here just means saving the life. It can and often does mean the physical life in the NT - actually more often than anything else. So, if the Jewish believers Barnabas (or whoever the author was) was writing to were to endure, they would preserve a life lived for Him. A life that meant something, as of value to God. Anyway, that's how I see this passage and the context, Joe - FWIW. Thanks for this insightful and energetic interaction, Joe. The above ideas are just how I see it. Thanks for giving me something to consider, and I hope you, and others on this list who may not have considered Hebrews in this light before, will consider my ideas also. BadDog |
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4 | What sort of judgment is this? | Heb 10:26 | BadDog | 63493 | ||
Joe, Thanks for your clear response. I agree w/ much of it. But I would like to make a couple of points which would indicate, at least to me, that believers are in view here. Let me start w/ your quote of Heb. 10:28,29: "Anyone who has set aside the Law of Moses dies without mercy on the testimony of two or three witnesses. How much severer punishment do you think he will deserve who has trampled under foot the Son of God, and has regarded as unclean the blood of the covenant *by which he was sanctified*, and has insulted the Spirit of grace?" Notice the portion I highlighted between *s. "by which he was sanctified." Unbelievers are not sanctified. I'd also like to briefly look at Heb. 10:39, the vs. which leads people to assume that this could not be referring to believers here: Hebrews 10:39 "But we are not of those who shrink back to destruction, but of those who have faith to the preserving of the soul." Now I agree w/ you that when he says "we are not of those who shrink back to destruction..." that he is addressing believers here. Of course, he says, "we," including his Jewish readers. However, the Gk. APOLEIA (trans. "destruction" here) is used in the NT for temporal as well as eternal destruction, and other meanings as well. (Matt. 26:8 - "why was this WASTED?" is one such example.) It basically means to destroy, ruin or lose. I point this out so that it is accepted that to say that this could be referring to the physical destruction of life you mentioned above is well within the realm of lexical meaning here. Once that is accepted, the entire passage opens up as referring to believers as the more logical interpretation, taken in context, IMHO. Thanks, BadDog |
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5 | Hebrews 6:6 explained | Heb 6:6 | BadDog | 63472 | ||
Jesusman, I don't have time to dealve into this in much detail, but let me at least give you something to think about: I do agree, BTW, that this is not talking about losing E.Life salvation. However, the context - "those who have been enlightened by the Holy Spirit" - is in my mind clearly referring to believers. So how to settle the at-1st apparent contradiction? The key, in my mind, is misunderstanding that repentance has to do w/ salvation (eternal life) here. It does not. When a believer reaches the pt. in which he continues to harden his heart, he is then at a pt. in which it is impossible (for us) to renew to repentance. God may take him home. But God may also bring about things in his life such that he will eventually respond (be renewed to repentance). IOW, though this person may have reached a pt. at which it is humanly impossible for us to renew to repentance, if we continue to pray, God can eventually perhaps renew them to a repentant heart. It will be a painful process for that believer. But that which is impossible for man is possible for God. You might want to look at other posts by myself and others regarding this. Thanks, BadDog |
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6 | Hebrews 6:6 explained | Heb 6:6 | BadDog | 63467 | ||
Matt, Right on! BadDog |
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7 | Hebrews 6:6 explained | Heb 6:6 | BadDog | 63466 | ||
Cyclist, Excellent. I couldn't agree more. If we continue to harden our hearts to the work of the Spirit, it will take a special work of God to change our ground so that he can use it again (burning w/ fire - which will burn off all those weeds!) BadDog |
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8 | Is the consuming fire in Heb. hell fire? | Heb 10:26 | BadDog | 63451 | ||
Ray, Excellent comments! They make sense, and you support them with scripture. I would like to add one additional thought to yours for everyone to consider: The Israelites who refused to believe the good report of Joshua and Caleb and instead believed the bad reports of the other 10 spies... what happened to them? Well, we know that they wandered in the wilderness because of their lack of faith for 40 yrs.. To quote one of your CRefs above (Heb 10:29) "Vengeance is mine. I will repay,' and again, 'The Lord will judge HIS PEOPLE.' It is a terrible thing to fall into the hands of the Living God." And earlier (in Deut. 9:5) - "The Lord your God is giving you this good land to POSSESS..." Now my contention is that Hebrews was written to Jews, but believers. The admonitions (5 warnings in Hebrews) are therefore written to believers... not to those who no longer believe, or to those who were apparently never saved in the 1st place. Now I realize that this may be a new way of viewing Hebrews for some, but bear with me for a moment. Those Israelites who died in the wilderness are not those who weren't saved. IOW, I expect that we will meet some of them... after Christ returns. They did not POSSESS the land - they didn't receive the inheritance. Let me quote from Hebrews 6:-12, right after the well known "impossible to renew to repentance" section: Heb. 6:9-12 But, beloved, we are convinced of better things concerning you, and things that accompany salvation, though we are speaking in this way. For God is not unjust so as to forget your work and the love which you have shown toward His name, in having ministered and in still ministering to the saints. And we desire that each one of you show the same diligence so as to realize the *full assurance of hope* until the end, 12 so that you will not be sluggish, but imitators of those who through faith and patience INHERIT the promises. Notice the reference to realizing the "full assurance of hope" and "inheriting the promises?" This is truth for believers. It is believers who inherit. But if we are sluggish, and not faithful, then we will not inherit the promises... just as those other Israelites of old. But we WILL still receive the free gift of eternal life. We are heirs of God. We are fellow/joint heirs with Christ PROVIDED we suffer with Him... God will judge His people (that must be believers)... and it will involve fire. But let me suggest that the fire burns off the old vegatation, so that the ground may possibly, by God's power, be used by Him again. Earlier in Chap. 6 we are told that it is impossible to renew again to repentance. Unfortunately, we've been conditioned to read "repentance" as referring to eternal life salvation, and to read salvation as the same. I don't think it is referring to that in either Heb. 6 or the Heb. 10 passage here. The METAXOI (Gk. - those who are partners with him... a stronger word than the well-known KOINONIA - fellowship/partnership idea) are those who like Joshua and Caleb are joint-heirs with Him (Romans 8:16 and 17. In this Romans passage we are told that we are heirs of God and fellow/joint heirs with Christ PROVIDED we suffer with Him...) It is a fearful thing to fall into the hands of the living God! And He will burn away the vegetation so that the new ground is perhaps ready to bear fruit worthy of salvation. Fire actually seldom refers to eternal damnation, IMO. Consider 1 Corin. 3, in which the useless works are burned off. We also read in 1 Peter 1:6,7 how our works more precious than gold are tested by fire so that they may be purified. Took a long time to write about that one thought! Thanks, Ray. Bob |
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9 | What does this verse mean? | Heb 10:26 | BadDog | 63374 | ||
Kalos, I use IMO in order to not come across as rigid or dogmatic, and with a degree of humility. I did cite scripture references, though perhaps not in every note posted: Hebrews 6, 10:4 and 18 and 1 Corin. 3. Since Hebrews was written to the Jewish believer, I consider that internal CRefs are most significant, as well as the Greek behind the text. My understanding is that this forum isn't one in which original language background was assumed, so I refrained from such arguments. IMHO, the text is quite plain if taken in context and if we can avoid personal biases affecting how we read passages, which is certainly, IMO, often not so easy to do. Also, I did not notice many cross references in any other posts - just quotes from commentaries and study Bibles. Incidentally, I found an interesting brief commentary from Ryrie's NASB stdy Bible. I agree with most of what he says, but I didn't agree completely with this one and it didn't really answer the original question, so I didn't reference it. But I certainly can provide more of such CRefs in future posts, if that is an expectation for this forum. Lastly, one of my posts was a question, so CRefs would make no sense there, of course. Now, if you would like to give some CRefs for any differences in opinion you have, that would certainly be appropriate, IMO But in responding to a question such as "what does this verse mean" I did not expect that this was expected. If I'm wrong, or missed some post requirements on this, I apologize. Could someone enlighten me about such. Probably this was not intended as such, but is it due to the opinion expressed that this critical response was made? Because I thought that this would be a friendly encouraging forum to post opinions, ask questions and to consider others' opinions. But it took just minutes to be "blasted." You don't intend it as such, clearly from above, but that's what it was in effect. Before you use the words "no ... whatever" even as an observation it would be best to go back and review the person's posts. Would I provided was an opinion different than any others I noticed, so I was hoping it might be stimulating to some, bringing about KALOS responses and inquiring questions and opinions. I don't want to foster arguments or critical responses. If that's common on this forum, count me out, please! In Christ, BadDog |
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10 | What does this verse mean? | Heb 10:26 | BadDog | 63359 | ||
Kalos, I use IMO in order to not come across as rigid or dogmatic, and with a degree of humility. I did cite scripture references, though perhaps not in every note posted: Hebrews 6, 10:4 and 18 and 1 Corin. 3. Since Hebrews was written to the Jewish believer, I consider that internal CRefs are most significant, as well as the Greek behind the text. My understanding is that this forum isn't one in which original language background was assumed, so I refrained from such arguments. IMHO, the text is quite plain if taken in context and if we can avoid personal biases affecting how we read passages, which is certainly, IMO, often not so easy to do. Also, I did not notice many cross references in any other posts - just quotes from commentaries and study Bibles. Incidentally, I found an interesting brief commentary from Ryrie's NASB stdy Bible. I agree with most of what he says, but I didn't agree completely with this one and it didn't really answer the original question, so I didn't reference it. But I certainly can provide more of such CRefs in future posts, if that is an expectation for this forum. Lastly, one of my posts was a question, so CRefs would make no sense there, of course. Now, if you would like to give some CRefs for any differences in opinion you have, that would certainly be appropriate, IMO But in responding to a question such as "what does this verse mean" I did not expect that this was expected. If I'm wrong, or missed some post requirements on this, I apologize. Could someone enlighten me about such. Probably this was not intended as such, but is it due to the opinion expressed that this critical response was made? Because I thought that this would be a friendly encouraging forum to post opinions, ask questions and to consider others' opinions. But it took just minutes to be "blasted." You don't intend it as such, clearly from above, but that's what it was in effect. Before you use the words "no ... whatever" even as an observation it would be best to go back and review the person's posts. Would I provided was an opinion different than any others I noticed, so I was hoping it might be stimulating to some, bringing about KALOS responses and inquiring questions and opinions. I don't want to foster arguments or critical responses. If that's common on this forum, count me out, please! In Christ, BadDog |
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11 | What does this verse mean? | Heb 10:26 | BadDog | 63352 | ||
I agree that what has been said here is true... for the one who is seeking or confused, stuck in some cult. But how about the believer? IMO, as I've expressed in other posts on this passage, this cannot be understood outside of the fact that Hebrews was clearly wand expressly written to Jewish believers. | ||||||
12 | What does this verse mean? | Heb 10:26 | BadDog | 63351 | ||
IMO, all believers sin willfully... is there any other way to sin? Probably, but I don't think that any believer can exclude himself/herself from this category of willful and deliberate sinners. | ||||||
13 | What does this verse mean? | Heb 10:26 | BadDog | 63350 | ||
I would agree with wdc. IMO, this clearly is referring to believers. I have a question also: Does this *sacrifice* refer to the OT sacrifice? I see it as such, and so this passage would be referring back to earlier in the chapter in which the OT sacrifice system and its drawbacks is described. If we as believers consider that we should go back to following the OT sacrifice system (This letter was clearly written to Jewish believers. If we ignore that fact, I don't think there is any way to get an accurate understanding of this text.) then we don't have any sacrifice effective for us. This is notto say that we are now in our sins again, since Christ paid for them once-for-all, but there are consequences for such an action. Temporal sonsequences, IMO, but significant ones. I'd be curious what others think re. the use of *sacrifice* here. |
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