Results 1 - 18 of 18
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Results from: Notes Author: yokefellow Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Can you lose your salvation? | Bible general Archive 1 | yokefellow | 29944 | ||
Dear Hank, Let's analyze the passage: 1) 1 John 5:16 - Here, reference is made to a "brother" who sins. The phrase, "any man" must therefore be speaking of only those who are members of the body of Christ and approved of God; it follows, therefore, that the "brother" contemplated as sinning is an erring child of God. An analysis of this passage reveals: (1) a child of God can sin; (2) there is a sin not "unto death"; (3) we are instructed to pray for those thus sinning, with the assurance that our prayers will be heard and answered; (4) there is a sin "unto death"; (5) for those guilty of such it is useless and futile to pray. 2) Our question now is: "What is the sin "unto death"? (a) It is obvious that no single sin, contemplated as an overt act, was in the apostle's mind. The passage does not designate "the sin" or even "a sin", but mere sin, sin in essence, sin abstractly considered. (b) The sin was such that a brother could discern or identify it ("If any man see"). (c) The "death" referred to was not "bodily death" but "spiritual death" - separation from God (Isaiah 59:1-2). (d) It was such a sin as only children of God could be guilty of. Any correct interpretation must take into account each of these considerations and embrace them. 3) There is much about sin and its forgiveness in this epistle of John. Sin is found in the lives of all Christians (1 John 1:8-10); its origin indicated (3:8); the way to void sin is revealed (3:9). In the event of sin in one's life, there is "an Advocate, with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous" (2:1); and the promise that "if we confess our sins, he is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness." (1:9) The apostle's teaching on the theme of sin and its forgiveness is abundant, and the significance clear: (1) The Lord will forgive every sin, of whatever nature, that a brother confesses (1 John 1:8-9); (2) There is, however, a sin which the Lord WILL NOT forgive (1 John 5:16); Therefore, the sin which the Lord will not forgive, is simply "a sin", "any sin", "all sin" that a "brother" WILL NOT CONFESS! 4) If this conclusion does not follow, it is because either the major or minor premise of the syllogism is defective. The "major premise" is that the Lord will forgive every sin a brother CONFESSES. This is stated in 1 John 1:8. The "minor premise" is obviously implied in 1 John 5:16. It follows, therefore, that since the Lord will forgive every sin, of whatever nature, that a brother CONFESSES and turns away from; and as there is a sin which the Lord WILL NOT FORGIVE, the conclusion is irresistible that the sin which the Lord WILL NOT FORGIVE is a sin which a "brother" WILL NOT CONFESS! The context corroborates this view. If my brother sins and manifests penitence, I not only may, it is MY DUTY to pray in his behalf (James 5:16). If, however, my brother exhibits stubborn impenitence and persistent "rebellion", following the commission of his sin, it is USELESS to petition the Father in his behalf. The "sin unto death" is thus a "disposition of heart", a "perverseness of attitude", and an "unwillingness of mind" to acknowledge one's sin and turn away from it. Such a disposition effectively "closes" the door of heaven in one's face (Isaiah 59:2). Mike |
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2 | Can you lose your salvation? | Bible general Archive 1 | yokefellow | 30035 | ||
Joe, thank you for your response. You asked, "If we "miss one," are we damned?" 1) In my daily prayer to God, I ask Him to please forgive the sins that I "know" about (commission) and the sins that I "don't know" about (omission). This will take care of "all" my sins. 2) The "works" mentioned in Eph. 2:9 refers to the old law of Moses (Rom. 3:20; Gal. 3:10-12) which no man could "keep" perfectly. 3) There are man's "works" of merit which will not save him (2 Tim. 1:9; Titus 3:5). 4) There are, however, "works" that God has authorized (prepared or ordained) us to "do" in order to be "obedient" to Him (Eph. 2:10) and His Will (Matt. 7:21). Notice in this passage (reading from the ASV). "For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which GOD (emphasis mine) afore prepared that we should WALK IN THEM" (emphasis mine). These are works of "obedience" to God - NOT works of merit which man has devised. One such "work" of obedience that God authorizes is Matt. 28:18-20 concerning the great commission. If's it's not a "work" to "teach all nations", then what is it? To illustrate, the following passages authorizes us as children of God to execute or perform the "works" that God has authorized us to do: 1 Cor. 9:1 - the inspired Apostle Paul here states, "are not ye my work in the Lord?" (notice "in the Lord" - the Lord has authorized the work - not Paul). 1 Cor. 16:10; 2 Cor. 9:8; Eph. 4:12; Phil. 1:6; 2:30; Col. 1:10; 1 Thess. 1:3; 5:13; 2 Thess. 1:11; 2:17; 1 Tim. 2:10; 3:1; 5:10; 5:25; 6:18; 2 Tim. 2:21; 3:17; 4:5; Titus 1:16; 2:7; 2:14; 3:1; 3:8; 3:14; Heb. 6:10; 10:24; James 1:25; 2:14; 2:17-18; 2:20-26; 3:13; 1 Pet. 2:12; Rev. 2:26. May the Lord continue to bless you in the study of His Word. Mike |
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3 | Can you lose your salvation? | Bible general Archive 1 | yokefellow | 30041 | ||
Dear Joe, Please study the scriptures that I have given in my posts before you "immediately" come to a conclusion. I cannot "change" what God's Word says any more than any man can. God's Word, for the most part, does not "conform" to "man's thinking" and therefore why he often "rejects" God's Word. This is why we MUST HAVE an open mind when we approach God's Word and get rid of preconceived ideas, philosophies, opinions, etc. As you well know, one of the major rules of interpretation is to allow ALL of God's Word to answer our questions - NOT just the part of scripture that we like or want to adhere to. Many false teachings have arisen because of this fact. The inspired Apostle Paul stated in Acts 20:20, "I kept back nothing that was profitable unto you"; and in Acts 20:27, "For I have not shunned to declare unto you ALL (emphasis mine) the counsel of God." Christ stated this application of scripture in Matt. 4:4 as He was tempted of the devil. "It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by EVERY WORD (emphasis mine) that proceedeth out of the mouth of God." The inspired Apostle Paul stated in 2 Timothy 3:16 that "All scripture is given by inspiration of God" (not just the part that WE want to adhere to). The religion of the Bible is not a "cafeteria style" religion where you can "pick and choose" certain verses in the Bible but not include the "whole body" of scripture in your interpretation. This applies to ALL men in approaching the scriptures. We must also have the attitude of the Berean Jews in Acts 17:11. They demonstrated a "readiness of mind" in receiving the word as well as having a willingness to "search the scriptures daily" to see whether or not Paul and Silas were teaching the Truth of God's Word. If all followers of Christ would adhere to the above principles, there wouldn't be any denominations in the religious world - only Christians belonging to the Lord's church that he built, purchased, and died for (Matt. 16:18-19; Acts 20:28). Mike |
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4 | "ONCE SAVED ALWAYS SAVED"!!! | Matt 22:37 | yokefellow | 30307 | ||
Hello Art, Your analysis of the parable of the prodigal son is correct. The key to the parable is the passage that you quoted in Luke 15:24, "For this my son was dead, and is alive again; he was lost, and is found." The "once saved always saved" doctrine is a false teaching brought down from John Calvin. Calvin was born in 1509. At the age of fourteen, he went to Paris to study the classics. He was so austere that his fellow students nicknamed him “The Accusative Case.” In 1529, he commenced the study of civil law. Presently, though, Calvin became intrigued with the teachings of the German reformers and so gave himself to the study of religion. To a significant degree, Calvin’s views, which were developed from the writings of Augustine – a “bishop” in northern Africa (A.D. 353-430), have formed the doctrinal basis of much of modern Protestantism. His ideas are circulated in several denominations, and, tragically, have found their way into the thinking many people. One of Calvin’s prominent errors was the notion that man is born totally depraved, having inherited both the effects and the guilt of Adam’s original sin. Even infants, therefore, have in them the seed of sin; indeed, their whole nature is a sort of a sin-seed, so that they cannot be anything other than corrupt before God hence all men stand in need of the Lord’s grace. From this fundamental error others spring. Limited Grace One of the corner-stones of Calvin’s theology was the dogma of predestination. This is the notion that, consistent with his own sovereignty, God, before the foundation of the world, pre-determined who would be saved and who would be lost. In view of this, when Christ died, his death was efficacious only for the “elect.” This concept of “limited atonement,” hence, limited grace, is so foreign to the teaching of the Scriptures that it is difficult to see how anyone with an elementary knowledge of the New Testament could accept it. Hear the testimony of Paul: “For the grace of God hath appeared, bringing salvation to all men . . .” (Tit. 2:11). Because God loved the entire world (Jn. 3:16), and so, wants all men to be saved (1 Tim. 2:4), and not a single one to perish (2 Pet. 3:9), Christ died to be the propitiation for sins – not just for the “elect,” but potentially for the entire world as well (1 Jn. 2:2). Irresistible grace Calvinism argues that by a secret and special operation of the Holy Spirit, God’s grace is poured forth upon the elect. Since the extension of this grace is an act of divine power, it cannot be resisted – any more than the original creation could have resisted the creative might of the Lord. But the fact is, though God’s grace is generously offered, it must be received by the sinner. "We then, as workers together with him, beseech you also that ye receive not the grace of God in vain" (2 Cor. 6:1). It is certainly possible to “receive not” that which is offered (John 1:11). Unconditional grace Calvinists argue that grace is given to the elect unconditionally. If such is the case, then there is absolutely nothing that one must do in order to receive salvation – not even believe. Paul declares that we have “access by faith into this grace” (Rom. 5:2). In his discussion of grace in Titus 3, the inspired apostle states that God, “according to his mercy, saved us through the washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Spirit . . . being justified by his grace” (5-7). Paul equates being saved by the washing of regeneration with being justified by grace. The “washing” is an allusion to man’s response to God by submitting to baptism. Grace is supplied by the Lord – independent of any merit on our part. Clearly, though, the “washing of regeneration” is a condition of our redemption. But is that expression an allusion to baptism? Even Calvin admitted that he had “no doubt’ that Paul was alluding to baptism – though he denied the connection between baptism and salvation. Irrevocable grace Calvin maintained that the elect could be certain that God would never allow them to fall away from the faith. They would thus persevere unto the end. A sizable segment of Protestantism has adopted the doctrine to some degree or another. But the New Testament teaches otherwise. A child of God can fall from grace (Gal. 5:4), or fail, i.e., fall back from, the Lord’s favor (Heb. 12:15 - ASV). It is possible to deny the Master who bought you and so be destroyed (2 Pet. 2:1). Thus, we must keep ourselves in God’s love (Jude 21), and give diligence to make our calling and election sure (2 Pet. 1:10), lest our reception of divine grace be in vain (2 Cor. 6:1). Conclusion: While we acknowledge that John Calvin taught some truth, we must also recognize that he advocated much error, and that error must be rejected. May the Lord bless you as you continue to study His Word and make application of it. Mike |
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5 | "ONCE SAVED ALWAYS SAVED"!!! | Matt 22:37 | yokefellow | 30335 | ||
Joe, 1. Fortunately, the church of our Lord that He established (Matt. 16:18-19) "suddenly" sprang up in A.D. 33 on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2) - not 200 years ago as you declare The church of my Lord is a "spiritual" institution (John 18:36) - not a physical one set up by man and his dogmas, creeds, philosophies, etc. Daniel foretold the establishment of that "spiritual" kingdom (the church) in Daniel 2:31-44. In fact, the church was in the mind of God BEFORE the foundation of the world (Eph 1:3-5; 1 Pet. 1:20) so I believe that's a little before "200 years ago". 2. If the doctrine of depravity and original sin were true then Christ must have been mistaken when He said in Matt. 18:3, "Verily I say unto you, Except ye be converted, and become as little children, ye shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven." It's obvious that if a little child can enter into the kingdom of heaven, he must be "sinless" for I read that those who are "sinful" will not enter into that kingdom (Revelation 21:27). You cannot argue over what the scriptures clearly teach because God's Word never changes - you can, however, point out what the scriptures do not teach and that's what I've done. By the way, I don't believe in arguing - it doesn't get you anywhere, is not productive, and wastes a whole lot of time! Mike |
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6 | "ONCE SAVED ALWAYS SAVED"!!! | Matt 22:37 | yokefellow | 30339 | ||
Art, I don't do labels either! Believe me, my intention of communicating with you was NEVER to call your ideas "Calvanistic". I was just simply pointing out to you where much of the false denominational teaching comes from - John Calvin - and to present some of the views he taught. I agree with you 100 percent that our faith needs to based on making what (quoting you), "I see to be to only conclusion possible based on the entire Bible." You are correct in your reasoning. In our study of the Bible, the only "correct" reasoning is harmonizing our reasoning with God's reasoning (Isaiah 1:18) in order to come to a proper understand of His Word. Using any other method is "false" reasoning. May the Lord richly bless us as we continue to study His Word (2 Tim. 2:15). Mike |
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7 | "ONCE SAVED ALWAYS SAVED"!!! | Matt 22:37 | yokefellow | 30364 | ||
Dear Joe, You stated, "if you don't like healthy debate, you have found the wrong forum." In the Webster's New World College Dictionary, I find the word "forum" with the following meanings: (a) "an assembly, place, radio program, etc. for the discussion of public matters or current questions (b) an opportunity for open discussion. I don't see anything in this definition concerning "debate" do you? I further do not see in this definition anything regarding a "healthy debate" do you? Besides, how can you possibly "debate" the scriptures if you believe 2 Tim. 3:16? They are "given by inspiration of God." If the truth of the scriptures is "given by inspiration of God", how can God's Word be debated? (Unless you want to "change" God's Word which is strictly forbidden - Deut. 4:2; 12:32; Prov. 30:5-6; Gal. 1:6-9). The only "debate" that could possibly occur is a "debate" over what's NOT in God's Word. Wouldn't that be a more "logical" conclusion? Any time the word "debate" is used in the scriptures, it ALWAYS refers to Greek words whose meanings refer to "STRIFE". I'm quoting from W.E. Vine's Expository Dictionary Of Old and New Testament Words, Page 82. 1) ERIS means - strife, contention, is the expression of enmity (Rom. 1:29, R.V., "strife" (A.V., "debate"); Rom. 13:13; 1 Cor. 1:11, "contentions" (R.V. and A.V.); 1 Cor. 3:3; 2 Cor. 12:20, R.V., "strife" (A.V., "debates"); Gal. 5:20, R.V., "strife" (A.V., "variance"; Phil. 1:15; 1 Tim. 6:4; Tit. 3:9, R.V., "strifes" (A.V., "contentions"). 2) ERITHIA - see FACTION. 3) ANTILOGIA - "strife," Heb. 6:16, A.V.: see DISPUTE, A, No. 4. 4) MACHE - "strifes," 2 Tim. 2:23: see FIGHTING, A. 5) PHILONEIKIA - "strife," Luke 22:24, A.V.: see CONTENTION, A, No. 3. 6) LOGOMACHIA - "strife of words", 1 Tim. 6:4: see DISPUTE, A, No. 2. Now, considering the above "quote", my question then to you is, why would a Christian want to engender or promote "STRIFE" on this "forum" or anywhere else for that matter? I would rather believe Mr. Webster's definition that this "forum" should be for the purpose of "learning" through an opportunity of "open discussion". This type of "forum" would allow students of the Bible to freely, rationally and logically ask concerning any type of Bible question, "What do the scriptures say concerning the answer to this question?" and then receive a "Bible answer" rather than giving someone's opinion, idea, philosophy, dogma, creed. A true Bible student doesn't care what someone's opinion, idea, philosophy, dogma, or creed is - their only objective is discovering what God's Word says on a matter - period! Why can't that be the simple criteria of discussion on this forum rather than stirring up strife among individuals? Mike |
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8 | "ONCE SAVED ALWAYS SAVED"!!! | Matt 22:37 | yokefellow | 30369 | ||
Dear Discipled, Wow, I actually found someone on this forum that agrees with me on something that I presented! Thanks for the compliment! I appreciate anyone willing to have a open mind and do as the noble Berean Jews did in Acts 17:11. Your question, "Can we outsin grace?" and your answer, "no we can't" is exactly the thought the inspired Apostle had in mind in Romans 6:1. "Shall we continue in sin that grace may abound?" vs. 2 - "God forbid" - literally, "May it never be". Thanks again and may the Lord bless you richly in the studying of His Word. Mike |
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9 | "ONCE SAVED ALWAYS SAVED"!!! | Matt 22:37 | yokefellow | 30377 | ||
Joe, To the true Bible student (and we all are), the only "creed book" should be God's Word - not any human uninspired teaching will suffice - after all, one's eternal destiny hangs in the balance! This is why that we as Bible students are commanded to "Study (give diligence to) to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth (2 Timothy 2:15). Human teachings can NEVER take the place of God's Word because they are simply uninspired teachings. The very next verse in this reading indicates that very thing - notice: Vs. 16 - "But shun profane and vain babblings: for they will increase unto more ungodliness." This verse is teaching that everything NOT commanded by God in the scriptures may safely be placed under this head. It refers to profane (common) and empty questions asked that caused division and strife. These types of questions were to be shunned. Vs. 17 - The word "canker" here in this verse is translated "gangrene". As you well know, gangrene poisons the whole body and quickly becomes fatal. So does the introduction of things NOT taught by God - the doctrines of men. These doctrines spread rapidly, corrupt the whole church till spiritual death ensues. Error is a diffusive poison rapidly spreading through the whole body and tending to vital decay and ultimate destruction (in this case, the soul). Hymenaeus and Philetus obviously fell into this category. Vs. 18 - "Who concerning the truth have erred". When we give sway or lend credence to men's teachings rather than seeing what God's Word says on a matter, we have "erred" in our conclusion and God will hold us accountable on that final judgment day (John 12:48). Notice also 1 Tim. 6:20-21. All I'm simply asking is for folks to simply display the same open mind and determination as the Berean Jews did in "searching the scriptures daily, whether those things were so." What were "those things" - the "things" that Paul and Silas were teaching concerning God's Word (Acts 17:10). As a result of their "searching the scriptures", in verse 12 it says, "Therefore many of them believed." Believe what? Believed the inspired teaching of Paul and Silas. Mike |
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10 | 'Practical' service? | Mark 9:35 | yokefellow | 29645 | ||
Dear Charis, Thanks again for your kind response! I'm sorry if I sounded too abrupt in my previous posting but there are people (as you well know) who have a hidden "agenda". They are not sincerely seeking answers from God's Word but live simply to stir up strife and contention. These are folks who already have an answer in their minds before they ask their question but want you to support their answer whether or not it is supported or authorized by God's Word or not. Then they get angry at you for not supporting it! The Pharisees that Jesus dealt with were of like character. These folks have "closed" minds - not "open" minds as we must have in order to attain the kingdom of heaven (Matt. 18:1-4). I now realize that you are not one of those types of people and I appreciate your honesty and sincerity. 1) Let me now address your question concerning commitment, responsibility, and orderliness. These Christian characteristics can all be summed up in one word - "faithfulness". As you well know, if God demands anything, it is "faithful" service (Matt. 25:21; Luke 12:42; 16:10; 19:17; Acts 16:15; 1 Cor. 4:2; 4:17; 1 Tim. 1:12) even in the face of death (Rev. 2:10). The word, "faithful", is mentioned 82 times in 78 verses in the Bible. Anything repeated more than once in God's Word is VERY important and needs to be heeded by God's people. Faithfulness must therefore be important to God. We cannot adequately serve God without being "faithful" to Him and His Word. In fact, if you turn that word around, it simply means "full of faith". We know that faith comes from hearing God's Word (Romans 10:17) and that "without faith it is impossible to please him" (Heb. 11:6). 2) You asked, "Do we not also serve God by serving His church, His body?". The answer of course is YES because that's exactly what the scriptures teach. I will also agree with your statement, "Our portrayal of the Gospel to the lost and to the saints is a form of service, too" because that is what the scriptures teach. Patience is not one of my greatest virtues but I'm working on it! I sincerely appreciate your patience with me! May the Lord continue to bless us as we study and make application of His Word. Mike |
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11 | Is 'once saved always saved correct? | John 6:37 | yokefellow | 31350 | ||
Joe, 1) First of all, I never said that the word "class" was in the Bible. I simply asked her to go to a concordance and try to find the phrase, "once saved always saved". You cannot find it - it's simply not there. 2) Secondly, in Webster's New World College Dictionary, the following definition is "one" of the meanings of the word "class": "A number of people or things grouped together because of certain likenesses or common traits; kind; sort; category." The word "predestinate" means "to set bounds before, determine, decree or ordain beforehand". It is important to understand that God can "foreknow" how men would react to His will without "forcing" His will upon us. It is easy for us to forget that time is not a factor with God. God "foreknew" or approved of the "type" or "class" or "kind" or "category" of persons He planned to save --- the obedient (Rom. 6:17)! God through His prophet, Samuel, told Saul that "obedience" was priority number one (1 Samuel 15:22) in his day and God still hasn't changed His mind (Matt. 7:21; James 1:22, 25). Foreordination does not refer to a certain "person" (God doesn't "choose" John to be saved but Mary will be lost - if He did that, He would be a respecter of persons - which He is not - Acts 10:34; Rom. 2:11; Eph. 6:9) but "kind" of person with a certain "kind" of character (See Ephesians 1:4-13). Before man was created God "foresaw" his fall, and designed the Gospel for his redemption; this fact is well attested by scripture (Rom. 16:25-26; 1 Cor. 2:7; Eph. 1:8; 3:9; Col. 1:25-26). God "foreknew" that a certain "type" or "class" or "kind" or "category" of people yet to be born would "accept" a salvation yet to be provided through the terms of the Gospel yet to be made actual. Man would never know anything about God's Son unless we had been "called" by the Gospel (2 Thess. 2:14). When man is "obedient" from the heart to that call of the Gospel (Rom. 6:17), he is justified from the guilt of sin (Acts 22:16; Rom. 6:18; 1 Pet. 3:21). 3) Thirdly, when a person asks a sincere Bible question either on this forum (or anywhere else), I as a Christian, am required to answer it by scripture (Col. 4:6; 2 Tim. 2:25; 1 Peter 3:15; 4:11). Since you obviously disagree with the answer that I responded with, you as a fellow Christian should correct me with proper scripture so that I might know where I my error is (2 Tim. 2:22-26) so that I might have a correct knowledge of God's Truth. I answered this lady's Bible question to the best of my Bible knowledge and ability. If I have failed, then I will certainly ask her and God to forgive me and give the matter further study. As of this point in time, she has not responded in kind. Mike |
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12 | Is 'once saved always saved correct? | John 6:37 | yokefellow | 31416 | ||
Joe, Let me please ask you five questions: 1) Did Judas still have his "eternal security" or salvation when he betrayed the Lord? (Matt. 26:14-16; 27:3-5; Acts 1:18) or did he "loose" his salvation when he "went and hanged himself."? 2) Did Demas (2 Tim. 4:10) continue to maintain his state of "eternal security" or salvation when he forsook Paul "having loved this present world"? 1 John 2:15-17 continues with the idea of "forsaking" the Lord by loving the world and the things that are in the world. 3) If our salvation is "protected" as you stated, ("Who protects us for our salvation?"), why in the world did Matthew, Luke, and Paul record those events by inspiration of the Holy Spirit? 4) If our salvation is "eternally secure" and can never be taken away from us because Christ has already forgiven our sins, past, present and future, then why did Christ tell those folks who "thought" they were sincere in their beliefs to "depart from me, ye that work iniquity."? (Matt. 7:21-23). Christ gives the answer in Vs. 24 - "Therefore whosoever heareth these sayings of mine and doeth them, I will liken him unto a wise man, which built his house upon a rock." Conversely, Vs. 26 and 27 state, "And every one that heareth these sayings of mine and doeth them not shall be likened unto a foolish man, which built his house upon the sand: And the rain descended, and the floods cme, and the winds blew, and beat upon that house; AND IT FELL: (emphasis mine) and great was the fall of it." Now, I'm just an ole ignorant farm boy - grew up on a farm with chickens, horses, cows, and pigs; I can just barely see through a screen door but I can see Christ's analogy very clearly here. If a person builds his faith upon the Lord's teaching and "does" what His teaching directs him to "do", he has built his faith upon a "rock". He is "safe" or in a saved condition and will stand approved of God in the day of judgment (Matt. 25:34) and will definitely receive an eternal inheritance (1 Pet. 1:4) and salvation (1 Pet. 1:9). However, if I am like the "foolish man" who built his house upon the sand (vs. 26) and "rejects" the Lord's teaching "does not do" what the Lord's teaching directs him to "do", vs. 27 tells me that he will "fall" ("and it fell"). This illustration of Jesus clearly makes its own impression. He who hears the words of Jesus, and does them, is "safe" or "saved" from eternal condemnation; unlike those who "reject" the words of Jesus (Matt. 25:40-41; 45-46). He who simply "hears", and does not "do", is doomed to "fail" of salvation, and be condemned to "everlasting fire" (Matt. 25:41) and "everlasting punishment" (Matt. 25:46). 5) If our past, present and future sins have "already" been forgiven and our salvation "eternally secured", why would the inspired writer John in 1 John 1:6-9 ask believers to continually "confess our sins" (vs. 9)? If God has for all time "forgiven" us of our sins, I can't for the life of me understand why the Holy Spirit through John put these words in the New Testament. It's so confusing to me - don't understand it at all. I would appreciate it if you would enlighten me as to the reason. Mike |
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13 | Is 'once saved always saved correct? | John 6:37 | yokefellow | 31492 | ||
Dear Tim, 1) Men will NEVER agree concerning WORKS until they understand fully that Paul in Eph. 2:9 is speaking of the "works" of the old law of Moses (Gal. 2:16; 3:10-12; 2 Tim. 1:9; Titus 3:5) by which "no man could be justified" (Gal. 2:16; 3:10-12). 2) James also talks about "WORKS" but not "works of merit" (where man "works" to hold God accountable or deserving of salvation) as 2 Tim. 1:9 declares. Note that James even declares in James 2:10, "For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all." No man could "keep perfectly" the law of Moses because Rom. 3:23 says, "For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God." 3) GOD'S PART IN MAN'S SALVATION PROCESS - Therefore, in order to save man, God had to design a faith "system" by which man could be reconciled back to God. He accomplished this "by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus." (Rom. 3:24). The shedding of Christ's blood "satisfied" God's requirement for man's sin (Rom. 3:24-31; 5:8-10). God provided the means through which man might be "forgiven" of his sins and be "reconciled" back to God (Rom. 5:10). Grace, then, is "God's part" in the reconcilation process (Eph. 2:8). 4) MAN'S PART IN GOD'S SALVATION PROCESS - Paul states in Romans 3:25-26 that God sent Jesus to be a "propitiation," which involves two ideas (1) satisfying the demands of the law, and (2) placating the wrath of God. No other sacrifice could accomplish "both" of these demands. Jesus died in our place (2 Cor. 5:21; John 1:29; 1 Thess. 5:9-10; Heb. 2:9; 1 Pet. 2:24; 1 John 2:2; 4:10. This propitiation is "through faith in his blood." We must believe (faith) that the blood of Jesus has the power to "wash away our sins" (Acts 22:16) when we "obey" the Gospel. When a person is scripturally baptized (immersed in water), he is "baptized into" the death of Christ. Since Jesus shed His blood in His death (Rom. 6:3-4), that blood is applied when one obeys the Gospel, when he is "born again" of water and the Spirit, and his sins are "washed away" by His blood. The power is NOT in the water, but in the BLOOD! That blood "continues" to wash away the sins of the children of God as they "continue" to "walk in the light" and "confess" their sins before God ( 1 John 1:7-9). Romans 3:27 - Here Paul is showing that all boasting or glorying is "excluded" by the nature of God's plan to redeem man through the sacrifice of Jesus. The apostle here points out that there are "two" kinds of laws that could justify. By a "law of works" a man could be justified, but only if he kept every part of the law PERFECTLY (James 2:10). This, of course, no man could do. Thus "the law of faith" is the ONLY MEANS by which anyone can be spared the punishment of sin, and this "law of faith" excludes ANY boasting on man's part. The "law of faith" is the Gospel or the "law of liberty" as James declares (James 1:25; 2:12). This "law of faith or liberty" is the Gospel or New Testament (Heb. 9:15-16) which teaches us that we MUST OBEY God's will (or testament in order to be saved - Matt. 7:21). This is "man's part" in his salvation ("saved through faith" - Eph. 2:8). Romans 3:28 - Law-keeping alone, which the Jews believed was all they needed, will not save anyone. We must have faith IN CHRIST and trust Him to save us, however, OBEDIENCE to the Gospel IS NOT EXCLUDED, as we have already observed. Martin Luther added the word "only" to this text, but the Holy Spirit did not inspire Paul to write "faith only" here nor "grace only" in Eph. 2:8. 5) James is talking about the same "kind" of works as Paul talks about in Eph. 2:10. The "works" that Paul talks about are "works of obedience" that "God hath before ordained (prepared) that we should walk in them." This is the same "kind" of "faith which worketh by love" (Gal. 5:6). This "love principle" motivates us as Christians to please God in the doing of His will. In order to demonstrate our love for God, we (his workmanship) have been "created in Christ Jesus unto GOOD WORKS (Emphasis mine), which God hath before ordained (prepared) that we should WALK IN THEM (Emphasis mine). Some of those "good works" are listed in James 1:27; 2:14-26). 6) I pray that you (and others who read this posts) can understand that Christians who are "in Christ Jesus" (Gal. 3:26-28) and who love Him should be engaging in "good works" that God has "ordained" (prepared) that Christians should do. NOT OUR WORKS - but GOD'S PREPARED WORKS - works of obedience - His commandments being part of those "good works" and "his commandments are not grievous." (hard to bear - 1 John 5:1-3). Paul even tells us in the letter to Titus that we as a "purchased people", should be "zealous of good works" (Titus 2:14). Mike |
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14 | Is 'once saved always saved correct? | John 6:37 | yokefellow | 31629 | ||
Dear Joe, All of this wasted "wrangling" because of a Bible answer that I gave Ka Lynn last Monday when she asked, "Is once saved always saved correct?" She only wanted an honest answer and I gave her one to the best of my ability according to the scriptures. She must have accepted the answer that I gave her from the scriptures since she didn't communicate anything else to me. If you had the "correct" answer all the time, why didn't you just go ahead and jump on in and give it to her? Why did you have to browbeat me like an ole horse? Yes, I will definitely "dodge" this argument like the others because there is absolutely nothing to argue about. As I've stated before, you can't "argue" what's IN the Bible (because God's Word never changes) - only that teaching that is NOT in the Bible. In my study this is what the Bible teaches. In your study, it teaches something else. This is fine because it's still a free country. I'm glad we're not under a dictatorship - you'd have already had me before a firing squad. Mike |
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15 | Is 'once saved always saved correct? | John 6:37 | yokefellow | 31642 | ||
Dear Joe, Maybe you should just set up your own Bible school and then you could teach the scriptures to everyone "correctly" as I (as well as others on this forum) have contradicted and grossly misinterpreted the scriptures too many times in your estimation. You stated in your posting, "The only way to hold to your position is to pick and choose the "works" passages and reject the "faith alone" ones, which equally as erroneous as holding to the "faith alone" passages and ignoring the ones which you mention in your posts." In my Bible (maybe yours reads differently), I do not see a "grace alone" nor a "faith alone" passage of scripture. The only way you can read that rendering is by "adding" to the scriptures which is (as you well know) forbidden. There are many preachers who teach the following: "You are saved by grace alone"; "There is no human part of salvation"; We do not contribute one whit to our salvation"; Our salvation arises entirely and ONLY from grace .... not by one act of duty, not by one deed of obedience, not by one righteous thing we do". "My salvation is based on grace alone ... I'm not saved because I believe or because I repented or because I was baptized ... there is only one "because of" in the plan of salvation"; "We are saved by grace plus NOTHING .... God does it all"! "We keep trying to place "conditions" on our receiving it (the free gift of grace)". "Grace is the ONLY thing that does save you". "Our works have nothing to do with our salvation". "The real motivation for obeying the Lord is NOT "in order to be saved" but rather "because we are saved". "I had absolutely nothing to do with my own salvation!" "Nobody has any right to preach anything other than the Gospel of pure grace". "We are saved by grace plus nothing". "You are saved by faith period". "There is nothing you can DO to be saved as God as done everything for your salvation". My question to you is: Are these preachers speaking the truth? If so: 1) Why is there not even one passage of Scripture that says we are saved by grace ALONE? Instead, the Bible teaches that we are saved by God and Christ (Tit. 1:3-4); the blood of Christ (1 Pet. 1:18-19); faith in Christ (Rom. 5:1-2); repentance (2 Cor. 7:10); baptism (1 Pet. 3:21); works (James 2:24); and hope (Rom. 8:24-25). 2) Why are not all men saved? According to Titus 2:11, the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation to all men. Yet, most men will not be saved according to Matt. 7:13-14. 3) Why did Peter say "save yourselves from this untoward generation" (Acts 2:40) and Paul say "work out your own salvation with fear and trembling" (Phil. 2:12)? 4) Why does the Bible teach us to believe, repent, confess, be baptized, and endure to the end in order to be saved (Rom. 10:9-10; Acts 2:38; Mark 13:13; Rev. 2:10)? The plain facts are (as I've stated over and over again in my postings) that the Bible teaches we are saved by "grace through faith" (Eph. 2:8-9; Rom. 5:1). Grace includes all that God does and has done for us (Romans Chapter 5; John 3:16-17) and many other passages. Faith includes all that man does and must do (Acts 2:37-38; 16:25-34). Note the keeper of the prison asked, "Sirs, what must I do to be saved?" What did Paul and Silas tell him? To do NOTHING? God has done everything for you already? Just accept Christ as your personal Savior? That's an EASY salvation! Most people enjoy and like that EASY salvation because they do not have to make ANY EFFORT at all! Just sit back and let the good times roll! Wait for the Lord to return and take you home to heaven! How convenient but unfortunately not true according to Bible teaching. Saving faith is not DEAD but LIVING and WORKING (Jam. 2:14-26; Rom. 1:5; 16:25; Gal. 5:6; Heb. 11). It is NOT negative, legalistic, or "guilt-trip" preaching to teach that there is something that man MUST DO in order to be saved and to CONTINUE to be saved - it is Bible teaching (Matt. 7:21; Acts 2:37-38; 9:6; 13:43; 22:16; Rom. 6:4; 2 Cor. 6:1; Gal. 2:21; 5:4; 2 Thess. 1:8; Heb. 5:8-9; 12:15; 1 John 1:7; Jude 4; Rev. 2:10). May the Lord bless you anyway! Mike |
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16 | The Forum -- Your Opinion? | Romans | yokefellow | 30681 | ||
Greetings, Charis, I can offer only a hearty "AMEN" to everything you stated in your analysis of the forum with one exception. I cannot agree with your statement, "I do not think that much true damage can be done here." The reason for my disagreement is that we are promoting God's divine Word on this forum. If we were promoting anything else besides God's Word on this forum, I would agree 100 percent that our answers would probably make very little difference or impact in peoples' lives and most would not pay much attention to the answers we give anyway. In the teaching and pomoting of God's Word, however, we must realize that people all over the world are looking at our answers. Their eternal destiny depends on our correct analysis of the holy scriptures (2 Tim. 2:15). This can only be accomplished by interpretating scripture with scripture. If our interpretation is incorrect and it leads a non-Christian (or Christian) down the wrong spiritual road (Prov. 14:12; 16:25), God will not only hold those individuals that are reading our postings accountable on judgment day but will hold us as teachers of the Word accountable as well. James 3:1 states, "Let not many of you become teachers, my brethren, knowing that as such we shall incur a stricter (greater condemnation - KJV) judgment." (NASB). Blessings to you in Christ, Mike |
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17 | The Forum -- Your Opinion? | Romans | yokefellow | 30771 | ||
Hank, I certainly realize that our eternal destiny is ultimately in the hands of our Creator. No question about that. However, if I (or anyone else) on this forum were to give an incorrect answer concerning a Bible question that someone might ask on this (or any other forum) and they didn't search the Bible to see if the answer was correct (Acts 17:11), it COULD effect their eternal destiny. Would you not agree? Especially if their Bible question had to do with their salvation. How many people who ask questions on this forum (or in any church setting - either Christian or non-Christian) actually "search the scriptures" to see whether or not the answer given them is true or not according to the scriptures? Many of them simply take whatever answer is given them without looking it up in the Bible to see if the answer given harmonizes with what the Bible says and teaches. This is the very reason there is a lot of false teaching going on in the church. People just don't take the time to search the scriptures for themselves - they simply take the word of someone else - either their pastor, preacher, elder, or whoever. This is why that we as teachers of the Word (whether on this forum, church setting, or home setting) need to soberly consider the eternal consequences of our teaching from the scriptures. Our spiritual influence is such that if people who come to the forum "think" that we are Bible scholars (and some of them do), should not we give them a "scholarly" scriptural answer from God's Word? I'm just simply saying that we need to be careful as to "how" we answer people's questions concerning God's Word. Our answers should not come from opinions, ideas, or philosophies but a "Thus Saith The Lord". Mike |
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18 | The Forum -- Your Opinion? | Romans | yokefellow | 31656 | ||
Dear Hank, Thank you for your honest and humble response! It's much appreciated and may the Lord bless you! I agree wholeheartly with your statement, "honest biblical questions should be accorded honest biblical answers". This is exactly what I've attempted to do (maybe miserably - yes - but honestly). Your statement concurs with Peter's statement that we as students of the Bible should "be ready always to give an answer to every man that asketh you a reason of the hope that is in you with meekness and fear (reverence)." I have tried to meet this requirement on this forum in all honesty, meekness, and reverence. Our agreement is also mutual concerning the last statement of your post, "With the denominational bias being what it is, there is little likelihood that we shall see eye to eye on all things biblical." Denominational bias is exactly why there are over 1,500 denominations in the world today. As you well know, Hank, there were no "denominations" in the Apostles day. There was just "one body" (Rom. 12:5; Eph. 4:4). That "one body" being the church over which He is its head and savior (Eph. 1:22-23; 5:23). He built His church (Matt. 16:18) and He purchased His church with His own blood (Acts 20:28). The Lord's church was established on the day of Pentecost 33 A.D. (Acts 2) and those that rendered obedience to what was said in Peter's sermon were "added to the church" by the Lord Himself (not man). Now, let me ask you this question: Why can't we as rational thinking men and women get rid of denominational teachings and just go back to the Bible for our spiritual teaching and instruction? What would be so wrong in seeking that method? Do you realize what that would produce? Just Christians (Acts 11:26). Not Baptists, Methodists, 7th Day Adventists, Assembly of God, Jehovah's Witnesses, Catholics, Mormons, Lutherans, etc., etc., but JUST CHRISTIANS! What do you believe the Lord would say to that idea? I believe He would say the same thing He said to His Father in John Chapter 17:20-23. Vs. 20 - "Neither pray I for these alone (the apostles), but for them also which shall believe on me through their (apostles) word; Vs. 21 - That they all may be ONE (emphasis mine); as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me." In the above reading, Christ concurs with Paul in 1 Cor. 1:10 when he says (by the Lord's authority), "that ye all speak the same thing, and that there be no divisions among you; but that ye be perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment." If the religious world could do what Christ and Paul stated, would there be any divisions among us? Would there be multiple teachings of men not authorized in the Bible? Would there be strife, fightings, wranglings over who was "right" or who was "wrong"? I believe we both know the answer to these questions. What is there that prevents this "oneness" from happening? For the love of Christ, His Word and His church, Mike |
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