Results 1 - 14 of 14
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions Author: reformedreader Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Care to Claim what you Proclaim? | Rom 5:6 | reformedreader | 7864 | ||
melchizedekau, You would be surprised to know what I understand. If you truly want to live up to Luke 4:18, then why don't you answer my questions and recover sight to the blind? Sam Hughey |
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2 | God's gospel or Man's gospel? | Rom 5:6 | reformedreader | 6537 | ||
melchizedekau, What scripture do you use to support the view that all humans were written into the Lamb's book of life before creation? Where does scripture say we are predestined to be conformed to His image only if we surrender? Why do you say "no matter what happens you will end up at your fate" and also say we choose our destiny? If nothing we say or do matters (as you stated) then why would any choice or decison matter since fate controls our destiny? And most importantly, where did you find the following quote from scripture; "You have been Predestined to live with me for eternity as the Bride of my Son which makes you and my Son one. It is your choice, i have chosen the path for you, although you some times seem afar off. Your decisions for me and your choice to change ,will bring you to my arms. In which i have predestined you to be. SAYS THE LORD"? Sam Hughey |
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3 | Who hears Christ's voice? | Rev 3:20 | reformedreader | 5438 | ||
Nolan Keck, And who is it that will hear Christ's voice and why? Sam Hughey |
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4 | All names still in the book of life? | Rev 17:8 | reformedreader | 5437 | ||
JVH0212, According to Rev. 17:8, this would indicate either all humans or some humans were written into the book of life before the creation of the universe. I have a couple of questions for this forum to think about. If Rev. 17:8 is true as it is written and if all humans were written into the book of life: 1) why then are all humans born under the condemnation of sin and predestined to the lake of fire for eternity which is the opposite of life? 2) why then do only some humans actually end up in the book of life? Sam Hughey |
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5 | The number one third? | Rev 8:7 | reformedreader | 3856 | ||
gomar, Shelly, An excellent question and an interesting answer. Could either of you state why the word "earth" must be translated as "people"? Sam Hughey |
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6 | God can use woman in the ministry? | Gal 3:28 | reformedreader | 3266 | ||
Elijah, In reference to your statement; "These scriptures have been change in every Bible that I know of, but one, they were change to look as though they were speaking of Jerusalem. This was done through Satins religions as an attempt to keep the women from knowing what they must do and what has to take place just before the end", could you tell me what the original statements were and who precisely changed them and in what translations/documents were they changed? Thanks, Sam Hughey |
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7 | Protestantism challenged? | Matt 18:17 | reformedreader | 3188 | ||
jim, It seems as though you have the basic principle and practice correctly, however, what you stated is not always as simple as it sounds. Having ought against a brother could involve many things of which disfellowship is not an option. Since you are being general in your statement, my response can only be general also. Don't forget that we are to still love and forgive those who have wronged us. Can you reconcile forgiving and disfellowshipping at the same time? I think that will be difficult while remaing biblically accurate in your assesment. Also, I still don't understand how this challenges Protestantism. Could you be a little more specific in that regard? Sam Hughey |
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8 | The Rapture, when will it be? | Bible general Archive 1 | reformedreader | 3179 | ||
LVDTHELORD, With all due respect, this statement is not correct. Dispensationalism may want to insert a gap in this prophecy but scripture does not. Nothing in these verses, including Daniel speaks of any gap. We do not have authority to create gaps or break down a whole period of time into lesser periods of time and say it is biblical unless scripture itself is crystal clear on this matter. Now, if anyone can show the gap without "assuming" it, then I will accept it as biblical authority. Is that fair? Sam Hughey |
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9 | What does "world" mean? | John 17:11 | reformedreader | 3173 | ||
HeirofGod, Thanks for the response. I don't want to misunderstand anything you are stating, so please correct me if I am wrong. I'm assuming your conclusion is that in John 3:16, the word "world" should be interpreted as "all humans without exception" and this would refer to all humans from Adam until the end of the world and would include every soul in the grave (or hell) at this time and every human ever mentioned in scripture. Is that correct? Sam Hughey |
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10 | What does "world" mean? | John 17:11 | reformedreader | 3040 | ||
Thanks Mark and please don't take my response the wrong way for I surely do not intend for it to be taken but with the utmost of respect and courtesy. I still don't see how the word didn't change meaning. It either retains the same meaning (referring to that of order as opposed to chaos) or it doesn't. If it doesn't, then it surely has changed. Now, you say the meaning did not change but the meaning you gave was "referring to that of order as opposed to chaos" and not "general" to "particular". The problem I see with this is the term "general" is so vague it can mean just about anything we want it to mean and the term "particular" was not followed with anything that is "particular" so it also leaves us with a vague and ambiguous meaning, which can also be whatever we want it to be in the absence of any specificity. I think John was very specific with what he wrote in 10:11; 27,28. I realize the word "kosmos" is used to refer to the created universe and as part of the created universe it "can" refer to mankind. However, that does not conclude that it "must" and most definitely refers to "all" mankind without exception. That is not general, that is very specific or I guess particular as you are using the term. This would completely disagree with what John states in the verses I quoted and it would contradict what John states if the word "kosmos" must be forced in John 3:16 to refer to "all" humans instead of just mankind, meaning some but not all. John does not say that Christ died for "all" mankind specifically or particularly. John says Christ died for His sheep and since "not all" humans are Christ’s sheep, then Christ obviously did not die for all humans unless something has changed the meaning of sheep. Now, we could say that all humans were/are Christ’s sheep (without any scriptural warrant) but at sometime in their lives they chose to become goats (also without any scriptural warrant). So, I still fail to see how the word "kosmos" changed from what you stated originally to what you stated in your response. What is it in John 3:16 that would lead anyone reading it to conclude that the term "kosmos" can only refer to all humans and still not contradict what John states in 10:11;27,28? Sam Hughey |
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11 | What does "world" mean? | John 17:11 | reformedreader | 2987 | ||
Thanks Mark, I would, if you don't mind, like a further explanation as to how the term "kosmos" (referring to that of order as opposed to chaos) suddenly changes meaning and refers to human beings in John 3:16. Also, if, as you say, Christ died for mankind in general, does that mean "not specifically"? John 10:11 says Jesus laid down His life for the sheep. If that is true, then mankind in general would be His sheep. 10:27 says Christ's sheep hear His voice and they follow Him. This obviously refers to salvation since verse 28 says Christ gives those for whom He died eternal life. If then, Jesus died for all mankind, and all mankind are His sheep, then all mankind hear His voice and follow Him. Is that true of all mankind? And if so, why are some of mankind in hell? Sam Hughey |
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12 | What does "world" mean? | John 17:11 | reformedreader | 2963 | ||
HeirofGod, What does the term "world" mean in John 15:19 and 17:11-16 and how/why is it different from the term "world" in John 3:16? Sam Hughey |
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13 | How should we determine? | Rev 13:18 | reformedreader | 2879 | ||
Ray, Usually, (and more often than not) theomatics works because you can make it work and those who believe it works are more prone to accept the general view than conduct any serious hermeneutical study on their own. (not meant to be an insult, only observational) Doesn't it seem strange that John says to calculate the number of the beast and then proceeds to actually give us the calculation? And to whom was John writing this letter, the 1st century Jews/Christians or some unknown and undetermined century of English speaking people? It is also quite strange how we force an English translation onto the Hebrew text of Rev. 13:18. So, should we interpret 666 from the Hebrew, Greek, Latin or English alphabet? Sam Hughey |
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14 | Where do you see it? | Bible general Archive 1 | reformedreader | 2842 | ||
LVDTHELORD, Where in Dan. 9:24-27 do you see any mentioning of a pre-trib rapture? Sam Hughey |
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