Results 1 - 14 of 14
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions Author: Robin Hass Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | ... | 2 Thess 2:15 | Robin Hass | 170906 | ||
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2 | Christian tradition | 2 Thess 2:15 | Robin Hass | 170871 | ||
I don't see any engagement with Scripture in the above passage. If you read my profile you'll see I'm coming from the Via Media viewpoint. The issue is whether Scripture makes the claim of Sola Scriptura for itself or whether it teaches Scripture and Tradition (we can dismiss the views the early Church but I'm sure you know the dogma of Bible ALone was not the view of the Church whilst it was thrashing out the great Christological doctrines which were expounded at Nicea and later). Let's chew over the Scripture verses. Answer me this please. If the 27 books of the NT aren't to be found in Scripture, is not the very list itself a Christian tradition. |
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3 | the Bible Alone | 2 Thess 2:15 | Robin Hass | 170861 | ||
2 Thess 2:15 So then, brethren, stand firm and hold to the traditions which you were taught, whether BY WORD OF MOUTH or by letter from us. Okay, I've checked out previous posts for this verse and have found nothing. The Bible in the aforesaid passage, and other places, teaches the Bible is not the only store-house of divine knowledge, does it not? Here are a few other Scriptures that seem to contradict the doctrine of sola scriptura: 2 Tim 2:2 The things which you have , HEARD FROM ME in the presence of many witnesses, entrust these to faithful men who will be able to teach others also. Acts 2:42 They were continually devoting themselves to the APOSTLES' TEACHING and to fellowship, to the breaking of bread and to prayer. This APOSTLES' TEACHING would have been oral teaching surely, none of the books of the New Testament had been written by Acts 2. 1 Thess 4:2 For you know what COMMANDMENTS we gave you by the authority of the Lord Jesus. 2 Thes 2:6 And you know what restrains him now, so that in his time he will be revealed. I mention this because the Thessalonian disciples 'know what restrains' from another source than Scripture, as this is not to be found in Scripture but in Paul's oral teaching. 1 Cor 11:34 ...The remaining matters I will arrange when I come, (or in the Amplified '...About the other matters, I will give you directions [personally] when I come.') Presumably, these remaining matters were delivered orally. 1 Cor 11:2 Now I praise you because you remember me in everything and hold firmly to the traditions, just as I delivered them to you. Presumably this was orally-delivered tradition. 2 Jn 1:12 Having many things to write unto you, I would not [write] with paper and ink: but I trust to come unto you, and speak face to face, that our joy may be full. A clear reference to teaching that is not paper and ink which will add completion to the disciples' joy. 3 Jn 13 I had many things to write to you, but I am not willing to write them to you with pen and ink; So is the sola scripture (Scripture alone) doctrine 'more biblical than the Bible.' Robin All I can think of in response would be 2 Tim 3:16 All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; Where is any reference here to i) the exclusion of Tradition ii) the SUFFICIENCY of Scripture |
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4 | Dead works | Heb 6:1 | Robin Hass | 170785 | ||
What does the biblical writer mean by repentance from 'dead works'. The NLT paraphases it 'evil deeds' which of course is more obvious as to the meaning but merely an interpretation. What are 'dead works' in this context? Robin |
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5 | Biblical Interpretation Term | Heb 10:11 | Robin Hass | 170323 | ||
I want to ask whether a specific method of biblical interpretation is valid and does it have a term. (Please don’t get too hung up on the specific example I choose because I’m interested in the validity of the principle, not the specific example.) Every priest stands daily ministering and offering time after time the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins; The above verse contrasts Christ’s once and for all sacrifice with the ongoing sacrifices of the OT Jews. Now sacerdotalist Christians (Catholics, Orthodox etc) say ‘their Eucharist is a sacrifice’ which clearly is repeated daily. Heb 10:11 is not specifically referring to the Catholic Mass but to the repeated sacrifices of Judaism. Obviously similar, but not exactly the same. So is this type of extrapolation a valid way of reading the Bible. It is simply a clumsy way of reading Scripture or allowable? Please remember I’m asking about a principle, I could have given another example. But I think that the principle is very important. |
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6 | Propitiation vs Expiation | 1 John 4:10 | Robin Hass | 168763 | ||
Why do evangelical bible translations (NASB, ESV, HCSB et al) always prefer 'propitiation' over 'expiation' which is invariably found in the liberal / Catholic / mainline Protestant bibles (RSV, NJB, NAB, NRSV). I can't find much difference in the meanings between the two words in dictionaries. Robin |
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7 | Are faithful Jews saved? | Deut 7:9 | Robin Hass | 168295 | ||
Jews tell us today that targeting them for evangelism is 'anti-semitic' and claim that the Hebrew Bible, our Old Testament, unequivocally states that their covenants are never-ending; their priesthood is perpetual (Exodus 40:15, Numbers 25:13); their statutes are forever (Leviticus 16:34); and their practice of circumcision is to be everlasting (Gen.17:13). Consider Deuteronomy 7:9: ‘Know therefore that the LORD your God is God, the faithful God who keeps covenant and steadfast love with those who love him and keep his commandments, to a thousand generations.’ (25,000 years if taken literally?) Does the universalistic saving covenant established in Jesus Christ really cancel the antecedent everlasting Jewish covenant. I think it is very difficult to maintain that the Sinai covenant is impermanent in the view of the Old Testament’s promises. Why are faithful Jews who follow the earlier covenant not saved. Surely to answer this properly we have to do more than use verses which counter the abovementioned 'proof-texts' and incorporate ALL the Bible teaches in our response. Robin |
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8 | Women less sinful than us?? | 1 Tim 2:14 | Robin Hass | 157951 | ||
Why is it, that women seem to be far less sinful than men? Women swear less, they don’t generally get into fights, they are rarely ‘violent drunks’, they seldom abuse children. Prisons are full of men (the ratio is 8:1 I think); most serial killers are men. When women are jailed for murder often there is some ‘svengali’ male character involved that influenced and led them. Most churches are full of women too, whether Protestant, Evangelical, Orthodox or Catholic. I have observed and pondered this many times. What exactly is going on? it seems really odd to me that half the human race seems to be less affected by their fallen nature. I reflect on the situation in Northern Ireland where the Catholics and Protestants (men) hate, kill, shoot and blow each other up. It always seems to be the women that are the ones desirous of peace. Why is this? |
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9 | How should theos be translated in Malti? | Acts 28:2 | Robin Hass | 157792 | ||
What word in Malti (a semitic language)would Maltese evangelicals translate 'theos' as then? God is an English word; Allah means God in their language. They can't use God, its an English word. They can't use Yahweh, it is not the translation for theos. They've been using Allah as their noun for God for thousands of years. Your fully justified hatred of Islam is spilling over into a prejudice against semitic languages. Robin |
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10 | How should theos be translated in Malti? | Acts 28:2 | Robin Hass | 157791 | ||
What word in Malti (a semitic language)would Maltese evangelicals translate 'theos' as then? God is an English word; Allah means God in their language. They can't use God, its an English word. They can't use Yahweh, it is not the transaltion for theos. They've been using Allah to mean the noun God for thousands of years. Your fully justified hatred of Islam is spilling over into a prejudice against semitic languages. Robin |
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11 | How should theos be translated in Malti? | Acts 28:2 | Robin Hass | 157790 | ||
I appreciate we are mixing English and Malti to some extent in this debate. What Malti word would Maltese evangelicals translate theos as then? God is an English word; Allah means God in their language. |
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12 | An Unknown God? | Acts 28:2 | Robin Hass | 157784 | ||
Hi Kalos, Your opinion contradicts Act 17:23-27 "For while I was passing through and examining the objects of your worship, I also found an altar with this inscription, 'TO AN UNKNOWN GOD.' Therefore what you worship in ignorance, this I proclaim to you. "The God who made the world and all things in it, since He is Lord of heaven and earth, does not dwell in temples made with hands; nor is He served by human hands, as though He needed anything, since He Himself gives to all people life and breath and all things; and He made from one man every nation of mankind to live on all the face of the earth, having determined their appointed times and the boundaries of their habitation, that they would seek God, if perhaps they might grope for Him and find Him, though He is not far from each one of us; Any pagan, heathen or Muslim who holds the concept of the God who created the universe holds the concept of the monotheistic God. Acts 4:12 refers to salvation which cannot be obtained from the 'generic God' except by His Son Jesus. Muslims hold an inadequate and incomplete picture of the Creator God, but I disagree with you that their God is someone else. Yes, they worship Him in ignorance and they are not saved. Robin |
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13 | Is Allah the God of Israel? | Acts 28:2 | Robin Hass | 157780 | ||
When on vacation recently in Malta, following in the footsteps of the Apostle Paul - Acts 27-28, I visited an Evangelical fellowship: http://www.fgpc.org.mt/bible.htm The pastor was bi-lingual and I was surprised to find out that the Maltese people, a Semitic race, Syro-Phoenicians I think, refer to God in their native 'barbarous' tongue, Malti as Allah! I thought I had heard in the past that the name Allah is a NOT a generic name for God but the name of a demon, and there is some story behind the name. Any thoughts? Furthermore, I believe that Islam is a non-saving false religion but that their concept of God/Allah (Creator) is still the real God. I would say that our God is the same God as the Deists, or the Greek philosophers but that they have no access to him nor any way of appeasing His wrath. Is this correct? Robin |
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14 | 'double imputation' | Rom 3:23 | Robin Hass | 157779 | ||
My question is about 'double imputation' of sin. Are unsaved men worthy of hell because they are born with original sin (and are guilty at conception) or for the sins they themselves commit (and are guilty at some age of culpability)? | ||||||