Results 1 - 5 of 5
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Who is the faithful priest? | 1 Sam 2:35 | Mommapbs | 105875 | ||
Who is the faithful priest? | ||||||
2 | Who is the faithful priest? | 1 Sam 2:35 | Makarios | 105932 | ||
Greetings Mommapbs, 1 Samuel 2:35 "And I will raise up for myself a faithful priest, who shall do according to what is in my heart and in my mind. And I will build him a sure house, and he shall go in and out before my anointed forever." [ESV] Here is a bit of commentary on this verse.. "2:35 I will raise up for Myself a faithful priest. Initially fulfilled in the person of Zadok, who served as a priest during the time of David (see 2 Sam. 8:17; 15:24,35; 20:25) and who eventually replaced Abiathar as high priest in the time of Solomon (see 1 Kings 2:35; 1 Chr. 29:22). build him an enduring house. ... The line of Zadok was continued by his son Azariah (see 1 Kings 4:1) and was still on the scene at the time of the return from the exile (see 1 Chr. 6:14-15; Ezra 3:2). .." (1) "2:31-35 The prophet predicts the destruction of the priestly family of Eli, partially fulfilled in the massacre of the priests of Nob (22:11-19) and in the transfer of the priesthood to the family of Zadok in the time of Solomon (1 Kings 2:26-27,35). The death of Eli's two sons on the same day would be a sign to validate the prophecy." (2) "2:35 I will raise up for Myself a faithful priest. Although some have identified this priest as Samuel and others Christ, it is better to view the prophecy as fulfilled in the ascension of Zadok and his family to the priestly office in the time of Solomon (see 1 Kings 1:7,8; 2:26,27,35). This reestablished the office of High-Priest in the line of Eleazar and Phinehas (cf. Num. 25:10-13). I will build him a sure house. The sons of Zadok will also serve in the millennial temple (see Ezek. 44:15; 48:11)." (3) "2:35 The faithful priest refers to Zadok, who was faithful to God and to the line of David and Solomon (1 Kings 1:7,8; 2:26,27,35). To build him a sure house means to guarantee a long line of succession for this faithful priest." (4) Blessings to you, Makarios (1) The Zondervan NASB Study Bible, 1999, the Zondervan Corporation, Kenneth Barker, pg. 361 (2) Ryrie Study Bible, Expanded Edition, 1995, The Moody Bible Institute of Chicago, Charles C. Ryrie, pg. 428 (3) The MacArthur Study Bible, 1997, Word Publishing, John MacArthur, pg. 381 (4) The Nelson Study Bible, New King James Version, 1997, Thomas Nelson Publishers, Earl D. Radmacher, pg. 456 |
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3 | God's "Mind" or "Soul" in 1 Sam 2:25? | 1 Sam 2:35 | flinkywood | 105937 | ||
Makarios, In your post to Mommapbs (ID# 105932), you cite ESV 1 Sam 2.25: "And I will raise up for myself a faithful priest, who shall do according to what is in my heart and in my mind. And I will build him a sure house, and he shall go in and out before my anointed forever." Both the ESV and KJV have it "mind" in 1 Sam 2.25. The NASB renders it "Soul": "But I will raise up for Myself a faithful priest who will do according to what is in My heart and in My soul; and I will build him an enduring house, and he will walk before My anointed always." (NASB) 1) How interchangeable are mind and soul as attributes of God? In the OT, soul is what has been breathed into being by God, e.g. our personality, will, intellect, emotion. Mind could almost be an aspect of soul, not vice-versa, at least as I understand it. 2) Why this peculiar choice in the NASB? 3) What do you think is the better choice? Colin |
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4 | God's "Mind" or "Soul" in 1 Sam 2:25? | 1 Sam 2:35 | Makarios | 105999 | ||
Greetings Colin! Excellent question! According to the Strongest Strong's Exhaustive Concordance, the word translated as "mind" [KJV] in 1 Sam. 2:35 is the Hebrew word #5315 'nepes' or 'nephesh' (Greek equivalent: #5883) meaning "breath; by extension: life, life force, soul, an immaterial part of a person, the seat of emotion and desire; a creature or person as a whole: self, body, even corpse: [rendered as] soul [416 times], life [100], souls [58], lives [18], persons [13], heart [12], mind [11], creature [9]", and various other places in the KJV.. (1) All of the places in the KJV where 'nephesh' is translated as "mind" are: Gen. 23:8; Dt. 18:6; 28:65; 1 Sam. 2:35; 1 Chr. 28:9; Jer. 15:1; Ezek. 23:17,18-twice,22,28. Total - 11 times. As far as 'soul' and 'mind' being interchangeable, I would say that it is based more upon the interpretations of the translators than anything else, but this is a classic example as you have pointed out! The KJV, NKJV, ASV, RSV, ESV and Amplified all have "mind" in 1 Sam. 2:35, while the NASB has the more literal "soul" in place, perhaps due to consistency.. The translators of the KJV, NKJV, ASV, RSV, ESV and Amplified were clearly not as comfortable using "soul" in a place in Scripture that refers back to God. Does God have a "soul" like ours? That is why I believe that the KJV translators sought to put "mind" here instead of soul, since it refers back to God. However, I believe that the most accurate or literal rendering of 'nepes' in this verse is "soul" as the NASB has it. In the KJV, 'nepes' was rendered as "soul" 416 times, compared to only 11 times for rendering the same Hebrew word as "mind." Therefore, 'soul' would be the most literal translation of 'nepes' in 1 Sam. 2:35. Which do I think is the better choice? Extremely tough question, and putting me on the spot! :-) Let's take a step back and consider the REAL question here: Does God have a "soul" like ours? First of all, if God has a Soul in any way that would resemble our soul, then we can't think of His soul in the same way that we consider our individual souls, since God is a Triune God. You see, as God has three individual Persons, we also have a physical being, a mind and a soul. Jesus Christ, in His humanity, had a human soul and spirit (Matt. 26:38; Luke 23:46). But this does not include His Deity, in which I believe that His 'soul' can only be understood or described in terms of the Holy Spirit. God the Father is not known to us through Scripture as having a 'soul', even though we know His will. I believe that He Himself is beyond what we think of as having a 'soul', and His 'soul' can only be defined in terms of the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit has a will (1 Cor. 12:11). But the Holy Spirit is also illustrated as clothing (Luke 24:49), fire (Acts 2:3), water (John 4:14; 7:38-39) and wind (John 3:8; Acts 2:1-2). Therefore, if the Holy Spirit Himself can fit the very description in regards to God as compared to what we call 'a soul' in human terms (breath; by extension: life, life force, soul, an immaterial part of a person, the seat of emotion and desire; a creature or person as a whole: self, body, even corpse), then we could say that the Holy Spirit could serve as the "soul" of God. Or, perhaps, our souls, in and of themselves, are small "copies" of the Holy Spirit. :-) But that is another discussion. To come full circle, we could conclude that in 1 Samuel 2:35, "God would raise up for Himself a faithful priest who would do according to what is in His heart and in His soul (i.e., the Holy Spirit).." And that is what my choice would be as far as the best way to "amplify" this verse! Blessings to you, Makarios |
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5 | God's "Mind" or "Soul" in 1 Sam 2:25? | 1 Sam 2:35 | Makarios | 106001 | ||
Whups! I apologize! That single post took me about an hour and a half to write.. My cited reference (1) was: "The Strongest Strong's Exhaustive Concordance Of The Bible", 2001, Zondervan, James Strong, LL.D., S.T.D., Revised: John R. Kohlenberger III and James A. Swanson, Grand Rapids, MI. - Makarios |
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