Results 1 - 7 of 7
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Proverbs 3:5 | Bible general Archive 4 | BradK | 224601 | ||
Hello Kathy, The Deity of Jesus Christ would mean that he is co-equal with God, the second Person of the Trinity. Jesus Christ is fully God and fully man- God incarnate! How then would we understand John 1:3, " all things were made through him...", and Col. 1:16, "For by Him all things were created, in heaven and on earth...". these are clearly references to the Lord Jesus Christ, the Word of John 1:1. The issue of His Deity was debated and decided at the Council of Nicea in 325 AD! The view of the Watchtower Organization is not new, but merely embraces Arianism. As a note: If "thei o tes" is referring to the quality of being a god, then you embrace polytheism! How many gods are there? Speaking the Truth In Love, BradK |
||||||
2 | Proverbs 3:5 | Bible general Archive 4 | Beja | 224602 | ||
Bradk, I agree with everything you said but one single point. Nouns in greek can be one of three stripes when it is not accompanied by the article. These are indefinite, definite, or qualitative. Definite is when even though the article is not present it still has the force of a singular thing. For example when you see the word Paul without the article you don't translate it as "a Paul." Indefinite is when you see the word book and you do infact translate it as "a book." Qualitative is when you make a statement about the thing itself. Now the way that phrase in John 1, "and the Word was God" is a contruction where overwhelmingly the second noun is a qualitative noun when we see that construct in greek. So what this means is that almost certainly what John is trying to say is that this word is qualitatively God. However, to take this to mean that the Word was just a god is dead wrong. That is missing the point of how John is using Theos completely. The idea of Theos here is not just a divine being. It is essentially what God the Father is. What John is saying is that there was God the Father and this Word was with Him from all eternity; and exactly what God the Father was, so also this Word was too. This "Word" was of essence the very same thing as God in every way. The phrase does not mean "the quality of being a God" it rather means "the quality of being the very same thing as the very God the Father being referred to in the verse." So I believe it is qualitative, but at the same time it fits perfectly with our trinitarian understanding of God. Isn't this what we teach? Jesus was with God in the beginning, and of his very essence He was the exact same thing as God the Father. This passage thoroughly refutes any notion that Jesus Christ was a created being, or that there was any time prior to His existense. I'll say one other point. Whoever tries, upon the basis of Greek grammer, to deny that this "Word," Jesus Christ, is in fact the one true eternal God is so blind that I pity them. You do not need to know greek grammer to see this. Why do I say that? How can we conceive it any other way? Look at what John is doing here. He takes a phrase that is so burned into the very fiber and soul of every Jewish man that it is a phrase undeniably reserved for Yahweh(Jehovah) alone and gives it to Jesus Christ. Genesis1:1 In the beggining God... John1:1 In the beggining was the Word... Is there any question that this was intentionally done by John here? This great being that was eternal and The One who created everything, this majestic God of creation is in fact our Lord Jesus Christ! To deny that Jesus is so is clear evidence false teaching. In Christ, Beja |
||||||
3 | Proverbs 3:5 | Bible general Archive 4 | stjohn | 224603 | ||
Bega and all, here is something I'd like to add to this thread that I believe is quite pertinent. I believe it was originally posted by Pastor Tim. --" Keeping in mind that the original manuscripts of the New Testament are written in Greek. One of the rules of Greek grammar, is that when two, proper and personal substantives, both of which are singular in number and in the same case, are connected by the Greek ‘kai’, then both of these substantives are in reference to the same person. Why is this important? Besides John 1:1 there are eight Christologically pregnant passages in the New Testament that conclusively state that Jesus Christ is, God. They are; Acts 20:28, Eph 5:5, Thess 1:12, 1 Tim 5:12, 2 Tim 4:1, Titus 2:13, 2 Pet 1:1, and Jude 1:4. Each of these passages, in accordance with this rule of Greek grammar, defiantly calls Jesus Christ – God!" John |
||||||
4 | Proverbs 3:5 | Bible general Archive 4 | Beja | 224604 | ||
John, Slight correction. The rule is actually when you have an article followed by that construction. So it would be something like, "The coach and companion" or "The Lord and Savior" etc. However, in the examples given they are still good examples of the correct rule. So I agree whole heartedly just wanted to make sure it was being said correctly. In Christ, Beja |
||||||
5 | Proverbs 3:5 | Bible general Archive 4 | stjohn | 224631 | ||
Dear Pastor Beja, thanks for the correction and your desire to get it right. Not being a Greek expert and having gotten this info from pastor Tim, (our resident Greek expert) I wouldn't know which of the two of you is correct. But since the final outcome is that the text and grammar shows Christ's Divinity, then it's all good to me!:-) John |
||||||
6 | Proverbs 3:5 | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 224653 | ||
Greetings John! Pastor Beja is correct! I should have added the following phrase to my post: "When the first noun has the article, while the second does not." But, as you pointed out, the meaning of the post is not changed as each example follows this rule. Thanks! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
7 | Proverbs 3:5 | Bible general Archive 4 | stjohn | 224700 | ||
Thank you, Pastor Tim! John |
||||||