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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Does Satan Really Exist? | Bible general Archive 3 | drbloor | 166055 | ||
Does 'Satan' Really Exist? If 'Satan' is an actual person, how can the parallel accounts of Davids numbering of Israel be explained: 1 Chronicles 21:1 "And Satan stood up against Israel, and provoked David to number Israel." 24:1 "And again the anger of the LORD was kindled against Israel, and he moved David against them to say, Go, number Israel and Judah." If 'Satan' is an actual person, scripture would here indicate that 'Satan' is God. How is this possible? Secondly, if you believe that the 'war in heaven' of Revelation 12 is a literal war and not symbolic, how can it be understood in terms of it's correct chronological context: Revelation 1:1 "The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass." This means that the 'war in heaven' must occur some time after the giving of The Revelation - it must "shortly come to pass." This would place it historically some time after circa 70AD. In other words, if you believe that 'Satan' is a fallen angel, then you must also believe that he did not become a fallen angel until after the whole of The Bible had been written, thus preventing the 'Satan' of Revelation 12 from being the 'Satan' of the rest of The Bible. Okay, and thanks. Dr. B. |
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2 | Does Satan Really Exist? | Bible general Archive 3 | mark d seyler | 166056 | ||
Hi Dr. B, Those are some really good questions! There are a number of passages that seem to me to be beyond disputing that Satan is an actual being, not a symbol, or allegory, but an individual "person". In Job, in the gospels (i.e. the wilderness temptations of Jesus), Peter's letter, and many more places speak of Satan as a particular created being. Regarding your first question regarding the numbering of Israel, the Bible tells us that both Satan and God had a hand in it. But this would not make them the same person. In John 13:27, of Judas, it says, "after the sop Satan entered in to him, then Jesus said to him, "what you do, do quickly." This was an act done by Judas. Satan had played a part as well, but at the end, it was Jesus Who set it in motion. God is sovereign. I take these passages of David numbering Israel to show the same thing. Our sins are our responsibility, Satan plays a role, but God is sovereign. Regarding the war in heaven, again, turning to Job, we see Satan presenting himself before God. That he is called Satan, the accuser, clearly means that this is after his fall. That he is presenting himself before God implies that he has the ability to enter heaven. Following the War in Heaven of the Revelation, he will not be able to enter heaven. He will be cast down to the earth, unable to leave it, and it will really make him mad. I hope this clears things up for you! Love in Christ, mark |
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3 | Where in scripture is the fall of Satan? | Bible general Archive 3 | drbloor | 166062 | ||
Thank you for your quick response Mark. I believe my misunderstanding of the view of Satan as an actual person has arisen because I thought that Revelation 12 was the explanation of Satan being a fallen angel. Where in scripture does it describe the 'creation' or 'fall' of Satan? Thanks again. |
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4 | Where in scripture is the fall of Satan? | Bible general Archive 3 | BradK | 166063 | ||
Dear Dr., Ezekiel 28 is generally given as depicting the "fall of satan". The New Bible Dictionary may be helpful in answering your question: "John tells us that ‘the devil sinned from the beginning’ (1 Jn. 3:8), and the OT references to him bear this out. Most of our information, however, comes from the NT, where the supremely evil being is referred to as Satan or as ‘the devil’ (ho diabolos) indifferently, with Beelzebub (or Beelzeboul, or Beezeboul) also employed on occasion (Mt. 10:25; 12:24, 27). Other expressions, such as ‘the ruler of this world’ (Jn. 14:30) or ‘the prince of the power of the air’ (Eph. 2:2), also occur. He is always depicted as hostile to God, and as working to overthrow the purposes of God. Matthew and Luke tell us that at the beginning of his ministry Jesus had a severe time of testing when Satan tempted him to go about his work in the wrong spirit (Mt. 4; Lk. 4; see also Mk. 1:13). When this period was completed the devil left him ‘until an opportune time’, which implies that the contest was later resumed. This is clear also from the statement that he ‘in every respect has been tempted as we are’ (Heb. 4:15). This conflict is not incidental. The express purpose of the coming of Jesus into the world was ‘to destroy the works of the devil’ (1 Jn. 3:8; cf. Heb. 2:14). Everywhere the NT sees a great conflict between the forces of God and of good, on the one hand, and those of evil led by Satan, on the other. This is not the conception of one writer or another, but is common ground." I hope this helps, BradK |
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