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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Who makes the rules? | 1 John 3:9 | Baptistbred | 94284 | ||
I have been in the full time ministry for 29 years and given the last 15 years of my life to intense study of the Word of God. Nevertheless, I still am having difficulty understanding 1 John 3:9 and similar verses. I have all of John MacArthur's , J.Vernon McGee's, John Calvin's, John Gill's, Barnes Notes, etc....... Here is my question: Example given: I know a preacher who has pastored a church for over 40 years and has a good testimony. Has always been faithful to his wife and in almost every way been a good example of a minister. However in one area he has always failed. Exessive overeating and neglect of his Temple of God. Now, in view of 1 John 3:9 , has he NOT been continuing in sin for 40 years? By the way, he has suffered tremendous health problems for many years and could die at any time because of these. Who makes the rules as to WHAT sins one has to continue in to be "continuing in sin?" |
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2 | Who makes the rules? | 1 John 3:9 | New Creature | 94338 | ||
Baptistbred I too have read some of the commentaries by some of the same men you listed, and their comments on 1 John. Here are a few comments from Spiros Zodhiates found on pages 183 - 185 of his Exegetical Commentary on The Epistles of John Whoever has been born of God does not practice sin, for His seed abides in him and he cannot be habitually sinning, because he has been born of God. "the believer may fall into sin. 1 John 2:1 states, and if one were to fall into sin (hamarte). The verb is subjunctive aorist which means the falling into an occasional sin for which there is confession (1 John 1:9) and forgiveness. A person who sins habitually without a sense of conviction and repentance cannot claim to have the Holy Spirit within him, and he who has him cannot sin habitually. The two states are mutually exclusive. The reason for the inability to habitually sin is that he has been born (gegennetai, the perfect indicative passive of genao) of God." Concerning your closing statement in which you stated: "Who makes the rules as to WHAT sins one has to continue in to be "continuing in sin?" I can only say that sin is sin. Any sin habitually committed without remorse or a sense of conviction and confession, on the part of the individual, is not walking in fellowship, and is not allowing the blood of Jesus to cleanse him. (see 1 John 1:7) which states; "But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin." It is only by continuiosly walking in the light that we have fellowship with Christ. The person who continues a life-style of habitual willful sin, is out of fellowship. Last year I led a small cell group in a Study of the First Epistle of John, and these are just a few thoughts concerning your question that have entered my mind. Hope this helps somewhat Grace unto you New Creature |
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3 | Who makes the rules? | 1 John 3:9 | Baptistbred | 94384 | ||
I appreciate your comments. I agree with all you said, however the question I have is still unanswered. In James 3:2 it says " We all stumble in many ways" . This , in reality, means "we all sin in many ways".Now do we confess every tiny offense as soon as we commit it? Lets take the patriarchs. Several of them directly violated the old testament law of marriage. They had no resmorse or repentance. This, according to 1 John 3:9 would be continuing in sin. Therefore they, according to 1 John 3:9 would be lost. The outward working of the Spirit of God has not changed. God's children have always been characterized by righteousness, right? These were not the heathen, they were God's select men of example. What about Rom. 7:15? "For what I am doing I do not understand; for I am not practicing what I would like to do, but I am doing the very thing I hate." NASB Paul says "doing" , "practicing". I am not trying to be contentious, but just trying to understand. Here is another thing. 1 John 3:10 says "By this the children of God and the children of the devil are OBVIOUS" (NASB My emphasis.) I don't understand that. If they are so obvious, why is it so difficult to discern the saved and lost? Prov. 24:9 "The thought of foolishness is sin" KJV All these definitions of sin confuse me. One almost has to believe there are sins for believer's that are covered by grace and are not "sins", and there are sins of unbelievers that "really"are sins. If the thoughts of an unbeliever are sin, why are not the same thoughts sin when believers think them? AAAAHH! :) The thing I have realized is that EVERY CHRISTIAN, EVERY DAY, CONTINUES IN SIN TECHNICALLY. Romans 14:23 "whatever is not from faith is sin." Now do we have perfect faith all the time? Do we confess this sin of lack of faith EVERY time we HAVE a lack of faith? If not, we are "continuing in sin". James 4:17 "Therefore to him that knoweth to do good, and doeth it not, to him it is sin." Have we , as believers, neglected anything that is required of us? Yes! Have we repented of EVERY failure in this area and have thence continued fulfilling ALL that is required of us? No. Someone would say, "It's all covered by the blood for we believers". Then hey! Let's go ahead and have a fling and sin! I'll end it with that for now. |
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4 | Who makes the rules? | 1 John 3:9 | DarcyA | 94385 | ||
I believe that John is taking about born again our spirits are born again and cannont sin. But we still have our old sinful flesh. Our flesh will sin if we allow it but as for our spirit it can't seen because we have the Holy Spirit. I am sure there is a lot more to it than that but its a start. | ||||||