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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | James instead of Jacob -- WHY? | James 1:1 | kalos | 173470 | ||
James or Jacob? Some Messianic believers have been taught that in the New Testament of the KJV the name James is a deliberately perverted translation of the Greek word that should be translated Jacob. That the Greek word translated James is Iakobos (pronounced ee-ak'-o-bos, Strong's #2385) is a fact and is not being disputed here. My question has to do with WHY it was translated James instead of Jacob in the KJV. Messianic believers are being taught that King James ordered it so translated because of vanity, i.e., so that a book of the Bible would have his name, James. My question is this: can anyone prove or disprove the idea that the book of James was named after or by the order of King James. I.e., that had it not been for the influence or command of King James of England, the name of the book and its human author would have been translated Jacob (as it appears in the Greek manuscripts)? Can anyone cite/quote any reference to prove or disprove the above claim? Any reliable information anyone has to share will be greatly appreciated, but, please, don't just give an answer without including the reason (proof, evidence) for your answer. Grace to you, Kalos |
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2 | James instead of Jacob -- WHY? | James 1:1 | Searcher56 | 173471 | ||
Kalos, God's day to you, my brother and friend, Iakobos (Strong's #2385) James is "supplanter" Iakob (Strong's #2384) Jacob is "heel-catcher or supplanter" http://bible1.crosswalk.com/ says they are the same, which you said, I think. http://www.bibletexts.com/qa/qa138.htm says ... "James" was not used in the KJV to especially honor King James, though the name "James" was made even more popular because of King James. "James" had already been considered to be the Middle English equivalent of the Greek word Iakobos ... ... there is more info at the site. http://hebrew-streams.org/frontstuff/tatiq.html says ... Yakobos is Hellenized form of Yakob ... Given the long history of anti-Judaism in the English church, it's easy to see why "Jacob" would be offensive to Christians ... The custom dates back at least to John Wycliffe who translated his NT in 1382. (Contrary to some rumors, the custom did not start with the "King James Version" of 1611). ... ... there is more info at the site. Searcher |
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3 | James instead of Jacob -- WHY? | James 1:1 | kalos | 173482 | ||
Searcher: Thank you for an excellent, well-researched, factual answer to my question. I will pass the information along to others, those who insist that the custom of the translators using the name James in the NT text started with the KJV of 1611. Grace to you, Kalos |
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4 | James instead of Jacob -- WHY? | James 1:1 | Searcher56 | 173509 | ||
You're welcome ... PS Messianic vesrions say Jacob | ||||||