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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What does inspiration mean? | 2 Tim 3:16 | charis72 | 94178 | ||
As believers, we believe that the Scriptures are inspired - breathed by God Himself. How does this apply to the inscripturation (writing down) of the Bible? I have heard some say that it means that God inspired the writers of the Bible in such a way that they recorded the EXACT words that God wanted used. And yet they claim that He did NOT dictate. It seems to me that if I told a person EXACTLY what to write, down to the very words to use, then that IS dictation. One the other hand, I have heard that it means that God placed thoughts or ideas within the minds of the writers and they then chose their own words to convey God's truth. This view may explain why we see some variances between accounts of what happened or what was said during a particular event in the Bible. The biblical authors did seem to use their own vocabulary and writing styles. Any thoughts? charis72 |
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2 | What does inspiration mean? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Christian24 | 94179 | ||
When looking in the bible to answer the question (What does inspiration mean?) I see the word divine in front of the word inspiration in many different verses. The inspiration was divine which means that it came from God, as in Luke, Mark Matt and others men of the bible they were actually there, and that book is the interpretation as they saw it. Dont take the bible as if it is just a regular man talking and its his words and not Gods, but God used these men, he inspired them with his divine knowledge to write and record. thus proclaiming the divine inspiration of the books and the wisdom and power of the God Who prompted their writings. But to stop there is by no means to grasp their full and outstanding purpose for today. Through the prophets God is speaking definitely and definitively to every individual and nation on earth, even right now demanding that we see ourselves as He sees us--a world of nations and individuals |
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3 | Clarification please? | 2 Tim 3:16 | charis72 | 94205 | ||
Hi Christian24, Thanks for your answer. I agree, it has Divine authorship. But my question is, how did He do it? Did the writers write with their own words? Or did they write with God's own words (dictation)? Are the scriptures the very words of God? If they are, what right do we have to translate them into English? (Something is always lost in the translation.) Fundamentalist claim that every word is inspired by God. I agree. But they won't define what "inspired" means. Again, does it mean that the words are the words of men that convey the thoughts of God or that the words are the very words of God and men just wrote them down? charis72 |
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4 | Clarification please? | 2 Tim 3:16 | Truthfinder | 94210 | ||
Hi Charis72, Allow me to jump in. I have not read any of your posts. In other words, I do not know you so in way of a little explaination, when most use the word "Lord" and it refers to Almighty God, I use Jehovah, since that is his name and it clearifies whom I am referrencing. Likewise when referencing Jesus as Lord I use "Lord Jesus". Yes, the apostle Paul stated at 2 Timothy 3:16: “All Scripture is inspired of God.” The phrase “inspired of God” translates the compound Greek word the·o´pneu·stos, meaning, literally, “God-breathed” or “breathed by God.” Thus it is the state of being moved by or produced under the direction of, in this case God. He "moved" these some 40 different Bible writers to write exactly what he wanted written. As the apostle states, God spoke “in many ways” to his servants in pre-Christian times. (Heb 1:1, 2) In at least one case, that of the Ten Commandments, or Decalogue, the information was divinely supplied in written form, merely requiring copying into the scrolls or other material used by Moses. (Ex 31:18; De 10:1-5) In other cases, information was transmitted by verbal dictation, word for word. When presenting the large body of laws and statutes of God’s covenant with Israel, Jehovah instructed Moses: “Write down for yourself these words.” (Ex 34:27) The prophets also were often given specific messages to deliver, and these were then recorded, forming part of the Scriptures.—1Ki 22:14; Jer 1:7; 2:1; 11:1-5; Eze 3:4; 11:5. Among still other methods used for conveying information to the Bible writers were dreams and visions. Dreams, or night visions as they were sometimes called, evidently superimposed a picture of God’s message or purpose on the mind of the sleeping person. (Da 2:19; 7:1) Visions given while the person was conscious were an even more frequently used vehicle of communication of God’s thoughts to the mind of the writer, the revelation being impressed pictorially upon the conscious mind. (Eze 1:1; Da 8:1; Re 9:17) Some visions were received when the person had fallen into a trance. Though conscious, the person apparently was so absorbed by the vision received during the trance as to be oblivious to all else around him.—Ac 10:9-17; 11:5-10; 22:17-21. Angelic messengers were used on many occasions to transmit the divine messages. (Heb 2:2) Such messengers played a larger part in the transmission of information than is at times apparent. Thus, whereas the Law given to Moses is presented as spoken by God, both Stephen and Paul show that God used his angels in transmitting that legal code. (Ac 7:53; Ga 3:19) Since the angels spoke in Jehovah’s name, the message they presented could therefore properly be called “the word of Jehovah.”—Ge 22:11, 12, 15-18; Zec 1:7, 9. No matter what the particular means employed for the transmission of the messages, all parts of the Scriptures would be of the same quality, all of them being inspired, or “God-breathed.” I hope I have answered your question. Truthfinder |
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5 | Clarification please? | 2 Tim 3:16 | charis72 | 94447 | ||
Thanks, Truthfinder, for that well thought out post on how God communicated with man. charis72 |
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