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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What does 1 Tim 3:2 mean? | 1 Tim 3:2 | Searcher56 | 6138 | ||
There is only one reason for the divorce, for a Christian, if the wife is not a Christian and she leaves him (1 Cor. 7:12-16). If his wife died, he is also free to remarry. I believe the pastor or deacon should be married. So if he is single, widowed or divorced - he is disqualified. Steve |
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2 | What does 1 Tim 3:2 mean? | 1 Tim 3:2 | kalos | 6928 | ||
To return to the original question: What does 1 Tim 3:2 mean?: "The issue is not the elder's marital status, but his moral and sexual purity." Steve: "1 Tim 3:2 *the husband of one wife.* "Lit. in Greek a 'one-woman man.' This says nothing about marriage or divorce. The issue is not the elder's marital status, but his moral and sexual purity. This qualification heads the list, beause it is in this area that leaders are most prone to fail. (...) "A 'one-woman man' is one totally devoted to his wife, maintaining singular devotion, affection and sexual purity in both thought and deed. To violate this is to forfeit blamelessness and no longer be 'above reproach'" (p. 1864, MacArthur Study Bible, Word, 1997). |
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