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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Doesn't make you wonder | 1 Tim 3:2 | EdB | 7007 | ||
Hank my brother again forgive me for appearing to be so much like a donkey. Your answer “the consensus among wiser men than me says thus and such.” Yet when I used that same rebuttal point in another thread I was told we can’t do that we have to go by what the Bible says. I’m trying to show a double standard here, one place we say we must go by the Bible literally and others we say we yield to wiser men. Look at the message we are giving the world, here this verse and this verse has to be taken literally. However this verse and this verse can’t be. What does the world really see? Doesn’t it see the church living by laws they are comfortable with yet condemning the world for living by laws it is comfortable with. I have always held this passage by the interpretation you just gave. I had formed that interpretation not by what I had read in the Bible but rather by what I had been taught. However after reading what Steve had said, I noticed God had gone out of his way to mention husband and wife rather than saying sexually pure or abstained from immorality, and I began to wonder why. Doesn't that even make you wonder? |
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2 | Doesn't make you wonder | 1 Tim 3:2 | kalos | 7010 | ||
"Here this verse and this verse has to be taken literally. However this verse and this verse can’t be." If 1 Tim 3:2 were taken literally by some, they would not interpret it in terms of marriage and divorce. To do so is to go beyond the strictly literal wording and to draw conclusions about subjects which are not named in the text of the verse. |
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3 | I'm not sure what your saying? | 1 Tim 3:2 | EdB | 7015 | ||
I don't follow you on that. If we would take this verse literally we have to say God was talking about a husband married to one wife nothing more nothing less. Explain to me what you saying? |
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4 | I'm not sure what your saying? | 1 Tim 3:2 | kalos | 7018 | ||
If one literally took "the husband of one wife" to mean what it says and nothing more nothing less, then one would not go off into various interpretations, suppositions and assumptions. If one took it literally, then there would be no need of an interpretation. Yet you all interpret it to mean it pertains to the death of a wife, divorced men and single men, thus presenting not one interpretation but three. |
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5 | I'm not sure what your saying? | 1 Tim 3:2 | EdB | 7020 | ||
No JVH0212 I take it to mean a husband with one wife nothing more nothing less. If a divorced man, single man, or a widower can met that qualification then I say let him get to it. | ||||||