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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why is this a problem? | 1 Tim 3:2 | EdB | 7003 | ||
Guys you keep skating around the real issue. Why did God chose to use the words husband and wife if all he intended was a man or woman of sexual purity? God doesn’t have a problem coming to the point other places 1 Thes. 4:3 For this is the will of God, your sanctification; that is, that you abstain from sexual immorality; Why do you insist God is talking so cryptic here? Using words like husband and wife that everyone seems to maintain means merely sexual purity. |
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2 | Why is this a problem? | 1 Tim 3:2 | kalos | 7009 | ||
EdB: Please do not take the following as a personal criticism, for that is not my intention at all. Nor am I being sarcastic or harsh with you. I merely address the issue, not personalities. You ask: "Why did God chose to use the words husband and wife if all he intended was a man or woman of sexual purity?" Seems to me yours is a reasonable question. And I would add: "Why did God choose not to use the words marriage or divorce if those were the issues He intended to address?" |
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3 | But didn't He? | 1 Tim 3:2 | EdB | 7014 | ||
But didn't He? Just by the fact that God used terms that are so synonymous with marriage. Doesn't husband and wife at least infer if not insist on marriage? | ||||||
4 | But didn't He? | 1 Tim 3:2 | Makarios | 7069 | ||
Hello Ed, I feel that it doesn't have to insist on marriage. I can read this as saying, "the husband of but one wife".. In other words, I feel that Paul is addressing the condition of one's morality here since he goes on to mention one's temperence, prudence, respectability, and hospitability, etc, etc.. which all have to do with a person's character or moral integrity- which is a direct relationship to where they are in relation to our Lord Jesus Christ. In other places of Scripture, Paul mentions the condition of sexual purity first before any others, and I believe that he is doing it here also.Before Paul even mentions the phrase "the husband of one wife", he says that "An overseer, then, must be above reproach".. Therefore, the phrase "husband of one wife" serves as a description of exactly how one should be "above reproach". In either case, I feel that Paul is not infusing the meaning that being married is a prerequisite for being an overseer or leader. EdB, I thank you for your brotherhood in Christ. I did not write the following in any 'mean spiritedness', but I believe that my point should be displayed to the greater consciousness of the Forum since I am coming straight from the Bible. | ||||||
5 | But didn't He? | 1 Tim 3:2 | EdB | 7075 | ||
Nolan I appreciate you brother. I have yielded on this subject. I know that your position is the classical interpretation of this scripture. It has been mine for as long as I can remember. I was just fascinated that Paul at the leading of the Holy Spirit chose terms that convey marriage (husband and wife) when he could have just as easily used terms that were totally neutral and devoid of any overtone of marriage. Paul could have said a man or woman of sexual purity. Or a man or woman that abstains from sexual immorality. I was questioning if there might be some reason for the particular language he used. Apparently everyone feels there isn’t. And some have even cast me in the light of being an idiot for even daring to think such nonsense. I have said my last on this subject, however to me it is still an interesting subject. |
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