Results 1 - 4 of 4
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Can you be a husband without marriage? | 1 Tim 3:2 | Makarios | 6987 | ||
Good question EdB! Now this is a question that we can all respect! Does 1 Tim 3:2 suggest that a man should be married as a requirement before assuming a role of leadership? That is a good question, and the question at the entire root of the thread. If the answer is 'yes', then this would exclude all those who are single or widowed, regardless of the circumstances. If the answer is 'no', then this would include all those who are married and also re-married who have been single, widowed, or divorced at previous points in their lives. In my own interpretation of this passage, I believe that this passage does not hold marriage as a prerequisite for leadership candidacy. I am very confident, however, that it speaks of the high moral integrity that is expected of such a leader. However, this is just my own opinion.Thank you, EdB, for rephrasing this question and presenting it in a sensible way. Your brother in Christ, Nolan | ||||||
2 | How do we pull marriage out? | 1 Tim 3:2 | EdB | 6992 | ||
Thank you my brother I thought I was destined to the abyss by tone some of the responses to my comments. Maybe there is hope for me. Praise the Lord! Here is an answer I would have hoped for. Notice it doesn’t say I’m wrong (therefore my emotions aren’t charged) It presents the writer’s opinions which everyone is entitled to. However I would like to know how the writer came to his opinion. In the passage in question the word husband and wife are both used. These two words are synonymous with marriage. If we are going to eliminate marriage as a requirement how are we getting around this obvious verbal connection? We have to forget what we have been taught or feel on this subject and analyze what is being said. Doesn’t the use of the words ‘husband’ and ‘wife’ force the issue of marriage? How do can we linguistically reduce it down to meaning sexual purity? I think this passage also eliminates any person that has been divorced since again we see the requirement of ‘one’ here. However death and remarriage since I believe the scriptures teach death ends the original marriage contract or vow, would be permissible. |
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3 | How do we pull marriage out? | 1 Tim 3:2 | Hank | 7004 | ||
Ed, the consensus among wiser men by far than I -- learned, God-fearing men who have devoted their lives to Bible exegesis -- is that this passage in Paul's Timothy letter and in the virtually parallel passage in his Titus letter are to be understood thusly: A man who desires to be an overseer (bishop, elder) should (if he is married) be the husband of one wife (not a polygamist or woman-chaser) and his children (if he has any) should be obedient believers. A man whom his wife divorces because of his marital infidelity would clearly be disqualifed to hold a church office, but a man whose wife commits adultery and a divorce results would just as clearly not be disqualified. And inasmuch as the death of a spouse ends the marriage contract, a widower would not be disqualifed unless he failed to meet the other criteria specified in the passages in question. I don't know any better way to say it. --Hank | ||||||
4 | How do we pull marriage out? | 1 Tim 3:2 | kalos | 7006 | ||
Hank: Thank you for a very complete and accurate posting. In one paragraph you have given us the meaning of 1 Tim 3:2. Originally, I would have thought that such an explanation as yours would be unnecessary, since this is no complex, detailed theological matter. I MISTAKENLY thought that common sense would indicate the verse to mean: "A man who desires to be an overseer (bishop, elder) should *(if he is married)* be the husband of one wife." (Emphasis added.) How this particular verse is interpreted as a COMMANDMENT to get married I will never know. | ||||||