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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is it ok to peddle the Word of God? | Phil 1:18 | deep input | 157077 | ||
at 2Cor 2:17 Paul states that he is not like the rest who are peddling the Word of God. Is it ok to sell all of the Christian mercandise that is being sold today, including books, tapes, sermons, ect? I understand paying for production cost, but to peddle them for profit seems wrong to me. | ||||||
2 | Is it ok to peddle the Word of God? | Phil 1:18 | Makarios | 157078 | ||
Greetings Deep Input, 2 Corinthians 2:17 along with numerous other verses indeed indicate that Paul's motivation for spreading the Gospel was driven only by a deep sincerity of heart and love for his Lord! Even so, verses such as Philippians 1:12-18 serve to show that Paul also rejoices in the spreading of the Gospel by means that may not be as 'sincere' as his own. "What then? Only that in every way, whether in pretense or in truth, Christ is proclaimed, and in that I rejoice." Philippians 1:18 [ESV] Blessings to you, Makarios |
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3 | Help with understanding of Mark 9:38-41 | Phil 1:18 | deep input | 157128 | ||
Hi Makarios, Thank you for your response. I am able to rejoice when when I hear people say the name of Jesus out of pretense. I dont get mad when people use it on tv as almost a swear word. I do get mad when people use it for their own glory. I need to better understand what Jesus said to John in Mark 9:38-41. I, also, want to thank you for your response to my question about 2kings ch 19 and Isaiah ch 37. The response was beautifull. In fact, I shared it with my freind who 1st brought the question up to me. One thing though, my resources indicate that Kings was written before Isaiah, so how could the writer of Kings use Isaiah writtings? I hope you can help with this. Thank you again. | ||||||
4 | Help with understanding of Mark 9:38-41 | Phil 1:18 | kalos | 157169 | ||
Please do not post to specific individuals in the Unanswered Questions section of the homepage. Whenever you reply to a post, above the box where you write your reply, it says: "Follow-up on this answer "This is a Question or Note" In other words you're being asked to label your reply. Is it a Question or a Note? If you mark it as a Question, then it appears on the homepage under that heading and is understood to be a question open to any and all, one that is not meant for a specific individual. It stays on the homepage unless and until the indivual you're asking decides to answer it. When that happens, everyone has to scroll down past it to get to the questions that ARE intended for anyone and everyone. So normally when we write a question to a particular individual we don't categorize that post as a Question. It is better, even though it is a question, to mark your reply as a Note before you submit it. If you will post your question as a Note, the individual you're asking will be notified of your reply. Please do not take this Note as criticism of you. I am merely providing you with information intended to be helpful. Welcome to the Forum! Grace to you, Kalos |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Phil 1:18 | Author | ||
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Tan_Flipper | ||
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deep input | ||
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Makarios | ||
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deep input | ||
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kalos | ||
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Makarios | ||
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Genee |