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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why isn't the gift of tongues a sign? | 2 Cor 13:14 | jcsav | 112914 | ||
Norm, would you explain more about what you mean by the gift of tongues is a sign, but it is not the sign that you have received the Holy Spirit/Ghost. | ||||||
2 | Why isn't the gift of tongues a sign? | 2 Cor 13:14 | TheFinalSQL | 112992 | ||
Sure, lets look at the verse brought up in this thread: 1 Corinthians 14:22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe. Notice it says that tongues are a sign. But, it says not to them that believe. Now if we look at the speaking of tongues in Acts 10 Acts 10:44-45 While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word. And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost. Notice, they of the circumcion believed. Tongues in 1 Cor 14.22 are for them that do not believe. Thus it is impossible that the tongues in these 2 scriptures are one and the same. Speaking in tingues as the Spirit gives the utterance is not a gift. It is the Spirit speaking for you. John 3:8 The wind bloweth where it listeth, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tell whence it cometh, and whither it goeth: so is every one that is born of the Spirit. Praise the Lord! Norm |
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