Results 1 - 2 of 2
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Are consistent renderings possible? | 2 Cor 11:31 | Ray | 104178 | ||
Hi Tim, Thank you for answering my question. As you know, I am no Greek scholar, but I would go along with your approach for the demonstrative pronouns. An example might be 2 Timothy 4:18 and 1 Timothy 6:16. The NASB uses a different approach and the NKJ is not consistent. I would render it "to whom" in both verses. I believe that we are in agreement there regarding "to whom". For 2 Corinthians 11:30 I would go with the NKJ. Thanks again. From the heart, Ray |
||||||
2 | Are consistent renderings possible? | 2 Cor 11:31 | Morant61 | 104184 | ||
Greetings Ray! Works for me! :-) I usually try to avoid translating a relative pronoun as though it were a personal pronoun. Except, like I said before, when it is used as the subject of the sentence. Then, I will translate it as 'He who'. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
||||||
Up | | |||
Questions and/or Subjects for 2 Cor 11:31 | Author | ||
|
Ray | ||
|
Morant61 | ||
|
Ray | ||
|
Morant61 |