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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Where in Acts does it say that? | Acts 1:1 | mitchm0521 | 167958 | ||
Now, Lets deal with prayer tongues. Paul says in 1 Cor 14:18 that 'I thank my God I speak with tongues more than ye all' And in verse 19 he says 'Yet in the church...' So Paul shows here, that he speaks in tongues outside of the church service. Which would have to mean that he has a manifestation in ihs life of speaking in tongues that is done outside the church service. And in Chapter 12, he was dealing with a version that was done in the church service. Also, lets look at one more place. In Jude verse 20 the Word says "But ye, beloved, bulding up yourselves on your most holy faith, praying in the Holy Ghost" Now, if we are commanded to pray in the Holy Ghost, which that just commanded us to do so, then how would God be just to command us to do something, that we could not do? And if we say that not everyone can pray in the Holy Ghost, then we are saying God is unjust to require us to do something, he hasn't given us the ability to do. It would be no differnt than me telling my son if he doesn't literally fly into the kitchen, he can't have dinner. That would be very unjust of me. Also, sorry, I have one more thing. In the Book of Acts and chapter 2, we see the 120 filled with the Holy Ghost, and the 120 speaking in other tongues, and we see them on the street and other people are amazed. Now, Paul said that if there is no interpreter, then don't speak in tongues in the church service. So if what they are doing in Acts, is the same as the Gift of Tongues that Paul writes of in Corinthians 12, then on the day of Pentecost, God himself messed up, and had these men doing something, that he didn't want to happen. Just more food for thought. I hope this has helped brother. If I missed any points, please let me know. God Bless, Mitch |
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2 | Where in Acts does it say that? | Acts 1:1 | Morant61 | 167962 | ||
Greetings Mitch! Allow me to touch upon a couple of your points. 1) The contrast in 1 Cor. 14:18-19 is not between 'in the church' and 'out of the church'. Rather, it is speaking in the church 'intelligible' words or 'unintelligible' words (tongues). 2) While I love your reference to Jude 20, it is not clear that praying in the Holy Spirit is a reference to speaking in tongues. It could be, but it could also be a reference to other kinds of prayer as well. 3) As for your last point, no interpreter was necessary since '...each one heard them speaking in his own language." (Acts 2:6). :-) Good discussion my friend. Just so you know that I have no agenda, I grew up in a pentecostal church and still exercise the gift of tongues. :-) Personally, I think the best evidence for a private prayer language is found in 1 Cor. 14:28. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | Where in Acts does it say that? | Acts 1:1 | mitchm0521 | 167964 | ||
Thanks for the discussion! Let me address what you said 1) In 1 Corinthians 14:19 Paul says 'Yet in the church...' How does that not show that he does this in the church, as well as outside the church? He is saying He speaks with tongues, then says 'Yet in the church' so he has to be saying something to the effect ' I speak with tongues more than any of you, yet when I get into a church service, I would rather.... ' 2)What do you say that Jude 20 is talking about when it says Praying in the Holy Ghost, my reason for saying praying in the Holy Ghost is praying in other tongues, because Paul says in 1 Cor 14:15 that he will pray with the spirit, which it is the spirit, which the spirit is the holy ghost... so he is saying, I will pray with the Holy Ghost. So Jude is saying to pray in the holy ghost... which must mean tongues, since Paul said praying in the spirit is tongues. 3)You say no interpreter was necessary because each one heard them speaking in his own language. Do you think that the 120 were all saying the exact same thing? I don't see why they would all be speaking in tongues the exact same thing, that doesn't make a whole lot of sense to me. However, no matter if they were or weren't, if one of them is speaking in another tongue, and its the tongue that a man from Egypt understands, does that mean the Asian understands it as well? Or would he still need an interpretation to know what that feller was saying? I hope I made sense in that point, what I'm saying, is if you were to speak in tongues, and it happed to be Spanish, the mexican man next to me wont need an interpreter, because it was his language, however I'm from the US and would not understand it at all, so I would still need an interpreter to know what you were saying. So there is no way, everyone, understood what all 120 were saying. God Bless, Mitch |
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4 | Where in Acts does it say that? | Acts 1:1 | Morant61 | 167967 | ||
Greetings Mitch! I will have to be brief. I need to run to the hospital and visit someone. 1) Allow me to use a different example. Suppose I were to say, "I like praise choruses, but in church I would rather sing hymns." I am not necessarily saying that I sing praise choruses outside of church. I could be saying that, but I also could simply be saying that of the two choices I would rather sing hymns. Thus, it would be going too far to say that Paul is contrasting 'in church' and 'out of church' in this verse. 2) This would be a good arguement except for the fact that 1 Cor. 14:15 does not use the phrase 'Holy Spirit'. The verse specifically says 'my spirit'. So, it would be a stretch to say that 1 Cor. 14:15 and Jude 20 refer to the same thing. 3) There are some who believe that Acts 2 describes both a miracle of speaking (tongues) and of hearing so that each one heard the tongues in his own language no matter what the speaker was actually saying. Given that the text specifically says that each heard his own language, I would have a hard time disagreeing with them. :) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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5 | Where in Acts does it say that? | Acts 1:1 | mitchm0521 | 167969 | ||
The Amplified says for verse 14 For if I pray in an [unknown] tongue, my spirit [by the Holy Spirit within me ] prays, but my mind is unproductive [it bears no fruit and helps nobody] So here, it is saying, the Holy Spirit, is what he is praying with the Holy Spirit. God Bless, Mitch |
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6 | Where in Acts does it say that? | Acts 1:1 | Morant61 | 167975 | ||
Greetings Mitch! Once again my friend, the text never says anything about the 'Holy Spirit'. The words included in the brackets in the Amplified version are interpretative. They aren't in the text itself. So, one cannot say with certainty that this is a reference to the Holy Spirit. In fact, the use of the pronoun 'my' would strongly indicate that it is not the Holy Spirit. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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7 | Where in Acts does it say that? | Acts 1:1 | mitchm0521 | 167995 | ||
Well first off, If you don't believe the amplified bible, I'll stick with the KJV. Secondly, you said the word my would strongly suggest that it is not the Holy Spirit, so let me ask you about Phil 4:19 says 'My God shall supply all your need according to his riches in Glory.' Since this passages uses the pronoun 'my' should we also say that the God refered to here then is not the God of Heaven? Is it some other God? Mitch |
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8 | Where in Acts does it say that? | Acts 1:1 | Morant61 | 168144 | ||
Greetings Mitch! Man has a heart, so the natural understanding of the phrase 'my heart' would be that it refers to a man's heart. Man has a mind, so the natural understanding of the phrase 'my mind' would be that it refers to a man's mind. Man has a leg, so the natural understanding of the phrase 'my leg' would be that it refers to a man's leg. Man has a spirit, so the natural understanding of the phrase 'my spirit' would be that it refers to a man's spirit. Man does not have a ' God' in the same sense that he has a leg. Correct? References to the Holy Spirit are always made as either 'the spirit' or 'the holy spirit', not 'my spirit' (unless of course God Himself is speaking). Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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