Results 1 - 3 of 3
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | David's wives became impure after Absalo | Acts 13:22 | DocTrinsograce | 165950 | ||
Dear Finder, Adultery is the cohabitation of a married person with someone other than their spouse. Polygamy in David's time was not adulterous nor promiscuous. The Scriptures are a progressive revelation. Christ brought greater specificity and clarity to us on this subject and many others. David should be judged by the values as understood during his day, not our own. With the exception of the premarital relations David had with Bathsheba, who was, indeed, another man's wife, his wives and concubines were solely his own. Although we might question the wisdom of David's polygamy, we cannot fault him as violating the Mosaic Law. In Him, Doc |
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2 | What is sanctification in a marriage | Acts 13:22 | Finder | 165953 | ||
Dear Doc, Thanks for your posting. But it is giving me a hard time to absorb the idea that the reality of holiness that could be simply stated by the command to have only one wife should be "complex" enough to have to wait a progressive revelation and greater specificity to clarify what is lawful or sinful or holy. I thought sanctification would already have been implied by Genesis 2:24 and Deut 17:17. In Him, Finder |
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3 | What is sanctification in a marriage | Acts 13:22 | DocTrinsograce | 165956 | ||
Dear Finder, You're right, the implications of those verses seem pretty clear... with the advantage of hindsight. However, note that they are not explicit. In the case of Genesis it was instruction to Adam. In the case of Deuteronomy the word "many" is subjective. Since David is never faulted for the multiplicity of wives he accrued, we may rightly infer that God was not overtly dissatisfied with his behavior in this area -- He only sent Nathan to David concerning the sin of adultery with Bathsheba. (After all, God in His mercy and love justifies us while we are yet sinners. The righteousness of His elect is the righteousness of Christ.) Remember, also, as Paul states it, sin is not counted where there is no law (Romans 5:13). Everything that David accomplished was by the grace of God (Psalm 4:1). God is the supreme judge. Therefore, if God chooses to declare David a righteous man (1 King 3:6), after God's own heart (Acts 13:22), it is His prerogative to do so. We must be careful not to second guess the Sovereign Lord God who judges the quick and the dead. Thank you, but you're giving me too much credit when you called it "your view." I've spent far too little time in the study of the Mosaic Law to venture a personal opinion. Furthermore, I'm pretty careful about presuming that I could bring something original to the table! I'm simply relaying the understanding that has long been expressed in orthodox OT scholarship. In Him, Doc |
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