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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | how do John 1:1-2 and John 1:14 relate | John 1:1 | lovetotalk | 153339 | ||
If you read John 1:1 in the greek language, as it was written, it would say '...the Word was god.' Not '...the Word was God.' There is no 'a'in the greek language. He is 'only-begotten' because it is explained for us in Prov.8:22 that he was the very earliest of his Fathers creations. He was the one his Father was fondest of. As you or I could be called a 'chip off the old block' of our parents, due to our personality or qualities, we are still our own person and not actually our parents. Jesus had his fathers qualities and was a perfect representation or reflection of them. The 'G' in speaking of the Word as God didn't enter until I believe the 4th. Century. The apostles never, ever, believed Jesus was God. That was a contrived insert to promote the trinity belief. God doesn't play games with us. If he wanted us to know that it was a trinity we should pray to, Jesus wouldn't have prayed to his father. He would have made it plain. I hope this helps. :) |
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2 | how do John 1:1-2 and John 1:14 relate | John 1:1 | srbaegon | 153342 | ||
Hello lovetotalk, You said: "If you read John 1:1 in the greek language, as it was written, it would say '...the Word was god.'" More correctly, it would say '...THEWORDOFGOD.'" But let's not quibble about bits. You are in violation of the forum rules of conduct in denying that Jesus is God in the flesh. You will cease and desist. Steve |
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