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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What does this verse mean? | John 10:34 | Searching For Truth | 70009 | ||
What does this verse mean? | ||||||
2 | What does this verse mean? | John 10:34 | Ray | 70046 | ||
Hi Searching for Truth, I wrote post #47745 in the other thread for this verse. I might just as well express some of my thoughts again. I think that this verse is made difficult by inability to know who is speaking in the quote. It is further made difficult by the choice of bold type by our NASB version. But I go with the NASB for verse 35, "If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came..." So the sense of the passage is that if we as mere men can call our rulers "gods" as Asaph does in Psalm 82:1; why would we find fault with Jesus, the Ruler who came amidst us if He says that He is the Son of God? We as men, rulers, gods. Jesus as a Man, Ruler, Son of God Jesus in this passage said that He and the Father were one. Verse 30. That the Father is in Me, and I in the Father. Verse 38. Yet even with that oneness, He emptied Himself and being a Man now claims to be the Son of God. How could they find fault with that? If we say that we are gods, and all of us are sons of the Most High; then Jesus can rightfully claim to be the Son of the Most High. Psalm 82:1, "God takes His stand in His/ own congregation; He judges in the midst of the gods." John 10:36c, "...because I said, 'I am the Son/ of God?'" John 10:33d, "...and because You, being a Man, make Yourself/ out to be God." From the heart, Ray |
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3 | What does this verse mean? | John 10:34 | Mommapbs | 127507 | ||
Ray, this one is right up your alley!v 35 - "If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), Who is "he" in this verse? Jesus is referencing Psalm 82. If it is indeed GOD who is speaking in Psalm 82, shouldn't "he" be He? Blessings on your day! mommapbs |
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4 | What does this verse mean? | John 10:34 | DBR | 127518 | ||
If you are referring to the "he" in vs. 1 this is The Father, Almighty God, rendering his judgment against the faithless human Judges and corrupt of Israel:- N.I.V. Study Bible. Comment on Ps 82:6. "I said. Those who rule (or judge) do so by God's appointment (see 2:7 ; Isa 44:28) and thus they are his representatives- whether they acknowledge him or not (see Ex 9:16; Jer 27:6; Da 2:21; 4:17.32; 5:18; Jn 17:11; Ro 13:1). gods. See note on v. 1*. sons of. See note on v, 1, Most High. See note on Ge 14:19." *"An early rabbinic interpretation (see Jn 10:35-35) understanding the "gods" (vv. 1,6) to be unjust rulers and judges in Israel, of whom there were many . . . ." K.J.V. Companion Bible, Ps 82:1 **"gods Elohim: used of earthly judges as representing Him. Cp. Ex. 21.6; 22.8, 9, 28 (quoted in Acts 23.5.). Hence Moses is so spoken of (Ex. 7. 1). (it is used also of idols as representing even a false god.) See John 10. 34, 35." "Verse 6. Ye are gods — Or, with the prefix of k ke, the particle of similitude, µyhlak keelohim, “like God.” Ye are my representatives, and are clothed with my power and authority to dispense judgment and justice, therefore all of them are said to be children of the Most High."-Clarke's Commentary OT, Vol. 3 Job - Song of Solomon by Adam Clarke p.1084 Sorry the Hebrew letters did not survive posting. DBR |
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