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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Greek of Luke 1.36: hosei/about | Luke 1:56 | RickCarpenter | 219564 | ||
Thanks David. It's my understanding that betrothal/marriage were nearly the same thing back then, not like in our current Western mindset. It may well be that the marriage ceremony itself was the only difference, some had it and some didn't, yet they were both as equally wed. So I'm thinking a pregnant betrothed woman was considered in the same light as a pregnant married woman. I think the only "shame" anyone felt was Joseph initially when he found out his betrothed Mary was pregnant but not by him. He soon found out from an authoritative source that everything was OK. :) |
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2 | Greek of Luke 1.36: hosei/about | Luke 1:56 | DocTrinsograce | 219575 | ||
Why would Joseph have felt shamed by sinful behavior in which he did not participate? His decision (Matthew 1:19) regarding Mary, was a purely compassionate one; arising out of "a good and chaste character" (John Gill). | ||||||
3 | Greek of Luke 1.36: hosei/about | Luke 1:56 | RickCarpenter | 219576 | ||
Doc, My "shame" comment (note the quotation marks) was made in response to David's comments: "May it not be that Mary, remembering her status as betrothed to Joseph, was seeking to avoid all the publicity that would undoubtedly ensue when news broke about the birth of John?" "She herself would have been 3 months pregnant at that time, and no reason could be given which would be acceptable to those who would enquire!" I think Joseph may actually have initially felt somewhat shamed by the situation he and Mary were in, but probably more shocked at the incongruity of a pregnant virgin -- as was Mary (Luke 1.26-38), then pensive (Matt 1.20), and then accepting (Matt 1.24) -- than shamed. It appears foremost that he didn't want Mary shamed if he had publicly revealed she was pregnant not by him, so he intended to divorce her quietly (Matt 1.19). When he found out what was really happening, I'm sure his initial reluctance to continue on with Mary changed dramatically to enthusiasm, as happened with Mary (Luke 1.38). Rick |
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4 | When did Joseph take Mary as his wife? | Luke 1:56 | Jim Colby | 220809 | ||
My question is concerning the timing of the events in Matt. 1.18-25 in relation to Mary's visit to Elizabeth in Luke 2.39-56. Is it reasonable Scripturally that Mary may have told her fiancé Joseph about the marvellous events of Luke 1.26-38 as soon as they had happened? That night Joseph's painful perplexity would have been turned to relief and joy, and the next day Joseph and Mary would have been together under one roof, a married couple (in the eyes of outsiders) nine months before the birth of Jesus. No scandal or suspicion would have arisen, and I find no suggestion in the Scripture that the people of Nazareth, Jerusalem or elsewhere ever suspected Joseph and Mary of misdemeanor regarding the conception of Jesus. Note: Two reasons why I had never considered this sequence of events until this past Christmas are: 1) the statement "she was found to be with child" in Mt. 1.18 seemed to suggest that Mary's pregnancy had been covered up and then discovered. Please correct me if I'm mistaken -- I'm no Greek expert -- but it seems that the Greek verb translated "found" is used similarly, for example, in Phil. 2.8 "being found in appearance as a man", where no discovery is suggested but rather a change of circumstances. Perhaps the NLT translation of Matt. 1.18 is accurate on this point: "But before the marriage took place, while she was still a virgin, she became pregnant through the power of the Holy Spirit." 2) the phrase "at this time" in Luke 1.39 has in the past given me the impression that Mary left for Judea almost immediately after the events of the preceding verses. But it seems that the meaning of the Greek is fairly general, "in these/those days", which I suppose could allow Matt. 1.18-25 to occur between Luke 1.38 and v.39. |
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5 | When did Joseph take Mary as his wife? | Luke 1:56 | DocTrinsograce | 220858 | ||
Dear Colby, John 8:41 would imply that Jesus' birth was deemed as illegitimate by those who knew the history of the family of Joseph and Mary. In Him, Doc |
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