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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | "...and fasting"? | Mark 9:29 | Robert Nicholson | 35086 | ||
Dear brother Makarios: The reference in my Old Scofield Bible note that"and fasting" is not found in "the two best MSS. However, having said that, think that we need to look at the verse within its context. While Jesus is up in the mountain with Peter, James and John, the other disciples are waiting for him. It would appear the the scribes were questioning them specifically about their power to heal. The father of the child has already asked the disciples to cast the demon out, "but they could not" I believe in V19 he is speaking to his disciples as he rebukes them. We find that after this event they had disputed among themselves "who should be the greatest"V.34 It would make one wonder what their motive was in wanting to have the power to heal. Was it for self promotion? Jesus said "This kind can come forth by nothing, but prayer and fasting." In other words total dependence and faith in God couple with denial of self. In Matt. 17 we find that he expands on this event. It is here that Jesus taught them that it takes a "small"amount of faith in a "great" God. Interestingly, according to my margin again, Matt. 17:23 does not exist in the two best MSS. I think in both cases, we are seeing that translations are not inspired. Unless we can hear or read it in the language of the original authors, there is always room for some discrepency with words. However, I do not see how these omittions interfere with sound doctrine. In Christ Robert |
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2 | "...and fasting"? | Mark 9:29 | Makarios | 35103 | ||
Greetings again, Robert! Thank you for your reply and for your reference to the Old Scofield Bible! :-) Actually, I favor the "Critical Text" of today over that which was used by the KJV translators, and I see and understand why the newer translations do not include 'fasting' in this verse and take out Matthew 17:21 altogether. Over time, the scribes had a tendency to 'embellish' or to borrow a phrase that actually existed somewhere else and inserted it in another place that contained similar language or events. And I trust that the Greek text that we have today is just about as close to the original autographs as we will probably ever get, that is, without God's direct intervention. :-) However, does the absence of "fasting" in this verse take away a bit of theological significance? In your response, you seemed to say "No, it doesn't", even though you did mention that such an act of obedience (the exorcism of that demon) required not only devotion but also self-denial, which would perfectly be illustrated by the presence of the word "fasting" in this verse. Even with that said, I agree with you, and I will continue to use my NASB and ESV despite the fact that neither one of those two translations includes the word "fasting" in Mark 9:29.. But it is difficult to hold a discussion with people who believe that the omission of the word "fasting" in this verse presents a quandary of sorts, since it feels as if it is missing the practical emphasis and 'punch' that Jesus had originally intended (or so it is thought). I presume that over time people will be able to adjust and to come to grips with the "correct" critical rendering of this verse, instead of trying to retain the traditional emphasis. But history has shown us that people are more likely to embellish and over illustrate rather than to keep it plain and simple, as the original author had more than likely intended. Mark 9:29 is one of the most disputed verses between those who believe in the preservation of the Textus Receptus and those who favor a Critical text. Blessings to you, Makarios |
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Questions and/or Subjects for Mark 9:29 | Author | ||
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Makarios | ||
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Robert Nicholson | ||
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Makarios | ||
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lilithcrown | ||
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lilithcrown | ||
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lakerep | ||
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beana21 |