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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Does the text in 1Tim 3:12 mean what it | Matt 5:32 | blindman | 108996 | ||
I have recently been nominated as a deacon in our church after much self-examination and researching and counselling with others I have accepted. The announcement of the nomination has now been presented to the congregation. One member of the church does not feel that I am eligable based on 1 Tim. 3:12 "Deacons must be husbands of only one wife". His opposition comes from the fact that my wife has been previousely married and divorced. His understanding is that based on Mathew 5:32.... and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery. Disqualifies me as an adulterer, therefore I am not the husband of one wife. Our relationship did not break up the previous marriage in fact we did not know each other while she was married before. I myself have not been married prior to this marriage. I became a professing believer after marriage and hold strong to my faith and convictions. QUESTION: Does the text in 1Tim 3:12 mean what it seems to? And that is that I should only have one wife, not more than one. Or is this individual’s assessment accurate. Thank you in advance |
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2 | Does the text in 1Tim 3:12 mean what it | Matt 5:32 | szalipski | 159101 | ||
I have seen that piece of scripture interpreted two ways. I tend to agree with the interpretation that it means "one woman kind of man". I don't think remarriage based on valid biblical grounds is the unforgivable sin. Look up David Instone-Brewer's book Divorce and Remarriage. I think you can look at it this way also: If your wife had murdered her ex instead of them just divorcing, she could have done her prison time, sought forgiveness from the Lord and then married again. Would that have appeased the member of your church who thinks you marrying her is adultery? | ||||||