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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why did Jesus MAKE John Baptize Him? | Matt 3:15 | TommyS | 102814 | ||
John's baptism was a "baptism of repentence" so why did Jesus "make" John baptize Him? Why did Jesus NEED for them to "fulfill all righteousness"? | ||||||
2 | Why did Jesus MAKE John Baptize Him? | Matt 3:15 | newoldstock | 102816 | ||
God used Jesus' baptism to signal the start of his ministry with all 3 of the trinity present. Jesus also used it as an example, that we should do likewise. | ||||||
3 | Why did Jesus MAKE John Baptize Him? | Matt 3:15 | BradK | 102821 | ||
TommyS, It is an interesting statement made by our Lord considering the He was without sin ( 2 Cor. 5:21)and needed no purification. It may be viewed as more symbolic? My take is ,that in order for Christ to fulfill the Righteous requirement of the Law (Rom. 10:4), He had to submit to and observe ALL, including ceremonial cleansing. The law requires perfect and complete fulfillment of it. Only Christ did (and was able) to do so. This may be at least one reason the writer of Hebrews could state "For we do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but One who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin." (4:15) Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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4 | Why did Jesus MAKE John Baptize Him? | Matt 3:15 | TommyS | 102825 | ||
Hello, BradK I also saw it as "interesting" considering Jesus needed no purification. Now that you mentioned it, I recall another such instance. (Luke 2:22b-25) Mary and Joseph brought Jesus to Jerusalem to "present Him to the Lord, (as it is written in the Law of the Lord, "Every firstborn male is to be consecrated to the Lord") and to offer a sacrifice in keeping with what is said in the Law of the Lord: "a pair of doves or two young pigeons". Wow, thank you sir! TommyS |
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