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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Heb 1:7 licentious use of Ps 104:4? | Ps 104:4 | kalos | 179799 | ||
The logical explanation is that the NT writers, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, often modified an OT quote in order to communicate what God intended for them to communicate. Obviously if one believes in the inspiration of ALL Scripture, then there is no such thing as a NT human author writing anything in the Bible that the Divine Author did not authorize. Grace to you, John |
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2 | Heb 1:7 licentious use of Ps 104:4? | Ps 104:4 | gdh1127 | 179839 | ||
hello john! thanks for the input. but i do believe there is a linguistic explanation for this and that although the original texts (greek writers quoting ot may it be from hebrew or greek renderings of it) agree, translation of the ot in hebrew or greek rendering into say english and nt in greek rendering into say english, something was lost *_* in the process. this is just a theory but i think it has good possibility. i just need someone who breaths ot hebrew and nt greek to show me *_*. blessings to you, grace |
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