Results 1 - 4 of 4
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is homosexuality actually forbidden? | Romans | Dean Graf | 11226 | ||
This is the crux of my problem. The original verses seem ambiguous, their meaning open to debate. And most of the clarifications I've been given so far seem to favor predigested interpretations over examinations of the texts themselves. I've yet to receive a translation of the original Greek which is also not agenda-driven. Debating from a stance of "This is clearly the meaning" doesn't help me because the meaning isn't that clear to me. Is somebody willing and able to examine the texts with me from a neutral stance? I appreciate it. | ||||||
2 | Is homosexuality actually forbidden? | Romans | Morant61 | 11265 | ||
Greetings Dean! Which text do you want to examine. I know Greek. But, I'm not sure what you mean about examining the text from a neutral stance! The word 'homosexual' means 'homosexual.' Let me know and I'll interact with you. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | Is homosexuality actually forbidden? | Romans | Dean Graf | 11286 | ||
OK. It has been my experience that the wording of the Bible is very deliberate. Rarely if ever is a word or phrase chosen over another purely for poetic reasons. So when wording differs from passage to passage on the same subject, I have been taught to question the reason for the difference. Thus I find it difficult to accept that qualifying a word by adding another word -- "homosexual" to "homosexual offender" -- is purely a matter of poetic license, because that argument would not be acceptable elsewhere in the Bible. Since you know the original Greek -- is the phrase translated as "homosexual" identical to the phrase translated as "homosexual offender?" Thank you. |
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4 | Is homosexuality actually forbidden? | Romans | Morant61 | 11310 | ||
Greetings Dean! Let's focus on 1 Cor. 6:9. The word translated "homosexual offender" in the NIV is the Greek word 'arsenokoites.' The definition of the word is "one who lies with a male as with a female, sodomite, homosexual." It is only used twice in the New Tesament, here and 1 Tim. 1:10. You said in your last post: "Thus I find it difficult to accept that qualifying a word by adding another word -- "homosexual" to "homosexual offender" -- is purely a matter of poetic license, because that argument would not be acceptable elsewhere in the Bible." If I am understanding you correctly, you seem to think that the word "homosexual" has been added. However, the word used in 1 Cor. 6:9 is "homosexual." The NIV simply choose to translate the word as "homosexual offender." You last question was: "Since you know the original Greek -- is the phrase translated as "homosexual" identical to the phrase translated as "homosexual offender?" Good question! There are actually two words that refer to homosexuality in 1 Cor. 6:9. The first (arsenokoites) refers primarily to the active partner in a homosexual encounter. This is the word that is translated as "homosexual offender." The second word (malakos) refers primarily to the passive partner in a homosexual encounter. This is the word translated as "homosexual." So there are two words used here. Both refer to homosexuality, but one is active and one is passive in nature. Both are sin. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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