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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | WAS speaking in tongues for unbelievers? | Acts | GpatM | 14007 | ||
WERE speaking in unknown tongues for believers or unbelievers? | ||||||
2 | WAS speaking in tongues for unbelievers? | Acts | Searcher56 | 14011 | ||
GpatM, "So then tongues are for a sign, not to those who believe but to unbelievers; but prophecy is for a sign, not to unbelievers but to those who believe" (1Co 14:22). So I see the Bible say speaking in unknown tongues (unknown to me, known to the hearer (Act 2:4-11) is for unbelievers ... and I agree. Steve |
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3 | WAS speaking in tongues for unbelievers? | Acts | Makarios | 14037 | ||
Greetings GpatM! The Bible is MY final authority and I in no wise intend to change it at all! :-) Indeed, speaking in tongues is a sign for those who do not believe.. "So then tongues are for a sign, not to those who believe but to unbelievers; but prophecy is for a sign, not to unbelievers but to those who believe." 1 Corinthians 14:22 (NASB) --Nicodemus |
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