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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Future or incomplete? | 2 Sam 7:10 | ron_wilson48 | 61015 | ||
Thanks, Tim Moran. Yes, your answer helps. However, the next question is based on the fact that the Hebrew concept of tenses is very different than ours. If the "will appoint", is not perfect, then it is imperfect, and that does not necessarily mean strictly future, but incomplete at that time. Any comments? | ||||||
2 | Future or incomplete? | 2 Sam 7:10 | Morant61 | 61045 | ||
Greetings Ron! The 'will appoint' of 2 Sam. 7:10 is a Qal Perfect, not an imperect. However, it is translated like an English future. Here is what my Bible software says about the Hebrew perfect tense: ***************************************** 08816 Perfect The Perfect expresses a completed action. 1) In reference to time, such an action may be: 1a) one just completed from the standpoint of the present ?I have come? to tell you the news 1b) one completed in the more or less distant past in the beginning God ?created? ?I was (once) young? and ?I have (now) grown old? but ?I have not seen? a righteous man forsaken 1c) one already completed from the point of view of another past act God saw everything that ?he had made? 1d) one completed from the point of view of another action yet future I will draw for thy camels also until ?they have done? drinking 2) The perfect is often used where the present is employed in English. 2a) in the case of general truths or actions of frequent occurrence -- truths or actions which have been often experienced or observed the grass ?withereth? the sparrow ?findeth? a house 2b) an action or attitude of the past may be continued into the present ?I stretch out? my hands to thee ?thou never forsakest? those who seek thee 2c) the perfect of intransitive verbs is used where English uses the present; The perfect in Hebrew in such a case emphasises a condition which has come into ?complete existence? and realisation ?I know? thou wilt be king ?I hate? all workers of iniquity 2d) Sometimes in Hebrew, future events are conceived so vividly and so realistically that they are regarded as having virtually taken place and are described by the perfect. 2d1) in promises, threats and language of contracts the field ?give I? thee and if not, ?I will take it? 2d2) prophetic language my people ?is gone into captivity? (i.e. shall assuredly go) ******************************************* I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | What does the Vav do? | 2 Sam 7:10 | ron_wilson48 | 61271 | ||
Thanks, Tim, for all your work in sending me your answer. Yes, I realize the form of the Hebrew verb is Perfect, but to some the prefixed Vav, reverses the verb to an Imperfect in meaning, called a Vav Conversive. Others, interpret this prefixed Vav as a Vav Consecutive. I was wondering if there are any particular clues to indicate how we should treat this Vav plus Perfect. I read through very heavy Hebrew syntax material, but could not see any definite answer as to how to treat this verb. The reason for this interest is that some who belive in the British Israel theory try to use this future translation to show that there has to be another place besides Israel in the future, i.e., England. If you have access to Hebrew scholarship that might give definitive help, please let me know. Thanks, Ron |
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4 | What does the Vav do? | 2 Sam 7:10 | Morant61 | 61288 | ||
Greetings Ron! Thanks for the additional info. I'll see what I can dig up and get back to you in a day or so! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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