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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: rowdyreader Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why use "adequate" in 2 Tim 3:17 | Not Specified | rowdyreader | 226905 | ||
I have a question regarding 2 Tim 3:17. I recently purchased an NASB Bible with Hebrew/Greek Key Word Concordance. In that verse, the NASB says, "that the man of God may be ADEQUATE." The Strong's Concordance that I have PLUS the concordance in the Bible state that the Greek indicates "complete" or "perfect." and that the Greek implies "all that is needed to complete a task." Therefore, I have to say that adequate is a poor choice of words there. I'm wondering why that word was used. Thank you! | ||||||
2 | Why use "adequate" in 2 Tim 3:17 | Bible general Archive 4 | rowdyreader | 226907 | ||
I have a question regarding 2 Tim 3:17. I recently purchased an NASB Bible with Hebrew/Greek Key Word Concordance. In that verse, the NASB says, "that the man of God may be ADEQUATE." The Strong's Concordance that I have PLUS the concordance in the Bible state that the Greek indicates "complete" or "perfect." and that the Greek implies "all that is needed to complete a task." Therefore, I have to say that adequate is a poor choice of words there. I'm wondering why that word was used. Thank you! | ||||||