Results 1 - 20 of 90
|
||||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Emmy Ordered by Date |
||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | RApture after the mark of the beast ?? | Not Specified | Emmy | 134021 | ||
The Rapture after the mark of the beast? 1 Thess 4:16 The dead in Christ rise first. Then the rapture. Conclusion: Rapture is after the 1st resurrection. Rev 20:4 In the first resurrection are saints who were martyred for not worshipping the beast and the image and for not taking the marks of the beast. If these are included in the first resurrection, then the first resurrection occurs AFTER the beast is worshipped, the image is made and worshipped and the mark of the beast is enforced. Conclusion: The worshipping of the beast, image and taking of the mark occur during tribulation period. In fact they are a big part of it. The first resurrection therefore occurs, during or after tribulations have started. Since the rapture follows the resurrection, therefore the rapture takes place during or after the tribulations. We know the rapture follows the resurrection. This is the best clue as to when the rapture occurs. WHEN DOES THE FIRST RESURRECTION OCCUR ? IS THE SEQUENCE OF EVENTS IN REV 20 give us the clue? Sequence in REV 20: Satan chained first resurrection thousand year reign of Christ with saints Satan released from pit to deceive the nations. Final war against Jerusalem and Christ Satan thrown into lake of fire 2nd resurrection final judgement at the great white thone. IN this sequence the resurrection is after tribulations are over and Satan is chained. If this is the correct, then the rapture occurs after tribulations as well since it follows the resurrection. If the resurrection and rapture is before tribulation, then the worshipping of the beast and image and the mark of the beast are all happening before the tribulations start, for martyrs to be included in it. |
||||||
2 | RApture after the mark of the beast ?? | 1 John 2:27 | Emmy | 134027 | ||
The Rapture after the mark of the beast? 1 Thess 4:16 The dead in Christ rise first. Then the rapture. Conclusion: Rapture is after the 1st resurrection. Rev 20:4 In the first resurrection are saints who were martyred for not worshipping the beast and the image and for not taking the marks of the beast. If these are included in the first resurrection, then the first resurrection occurs AFTER the beast is worshipped, the image is made and worshipped and the mark of the beast is enforced. Conclusion: The worshipping of the beast, image and taking of the mark occur during tribulation period. In fact they are a big part of it. The first resurrection therefore occurs, during or after tribulations have started. Since the rapture follows the resurrection, therefore the rapture takes place during or after the tribulations. We know the rapture follows the resurrection. This is the best clue as to when the rapture occurs. WHEN DOES THE FIRST RESURRECTION OCCUR ? IS THE SEQUENCE OF EVENTS IN REV 20 give us the clue? Sequence in REV 20: Satan chained first resurrection thousand year reign of Christ with saints Satan released from pit to deceive the nations. Final war against Jerusalem and Christ Satan thrown into lake of fire 2nd resurrection final judgement at the great white thone. IN this sequence the resurrection is after tribulations are over and Satan is chained. If this is the correct, then the rapture occurs after tribulations as well since it follows the resurrection. If the resurrection and rapture is before tribulation, then the worshipping of the beast and image and the mark of the beast are all happening before the tribulations start, for martyrs to be included in it. |
||||||
3 | 144,000 | Rev 14:1 | Emmy | 120036 | ||
The 144000 are people of Israel They are 12000 from each tribe of Israel The are sealed with the seal of God before the angels are to blow the trumpets or trumpet judgements occur. They are with Christ on mount zion when he returns. They will go with Him wherever He goes after that. SInce they are sealed for protection against the trumpets, they survive the judgments they are protected from. They are likely alive when Christ returns. Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
||||||
4 | Sequence in Revelation 14 | Rev 14:1 | Emmy | 120035 | ||
It would please us if as many people as read this give a quick response to the following QUESTIONS. Thanks The small print is bible text THE LARGE PRINT ARE OUR QUESTIONS. REV 14:1 Then I looked, and there before me was the Lamb, standing on Mount Zion, and with him 144,000 who had his name and his Father's name written on their foreheads. THE 144000 WERE SEALED JUST BEFORE THE FIRST TRUMPET JUDGEMENT. HERE THEY ARE ON MOUNT ZION WITH CHRIST. IS THIS AFTER CHRIST HAS RETURNED? Yes/No ( ) 2 And I heard a sound from heaven like the roar of rushing waters and like a loud peal of thunder. The sound I heard was like that of harpists playing their harps. 3 And they sang a new song before the throne and before the four living creatures and the elders. No one could learn the song except the 144,000 who had been redeemed from the earth. 4 These are those who did not defile themselves with women, for they kept themselves pure. They follow the Lamb wherever he goes. They were purchased from among men and offered as firstfruits to God and the Lamb. 5 No lie was found in their mouths; they are blameless. 6 Then I saw another angel flying in midair, and he had the eternal gospel to proclaim to those who live on the earth--to every nation, tribe, language and people. 7 He said in a loud voice, "Fear God and give him glory, because the hour of his judgment has come. Worship him who made the heavens, the earth, the sea and the springs of water." 8 A second angel followed and said, "Fallen! Fallen is Babylon the Great, which made all the nations drink the maddening wine of her adulteries." IS THE GOSPEL PREACHED BY THIS ANGEL AFTER THE 144000 ARE SEEN WITH CHRIST? Yes/No ( ) 9 A third angel followed them and said in a loud voice: "If anyone worships the beast and his image and receives his mark on the forehead or on the hand, 10 he, too, will drink of the wine of God's fury, which has been poured full strength into the cup of his wrath. He will be tormented with burning sulfur in the presence of the holy angels and of the Lamb. 11 And the smoke of their torment rises for ever and ever. There is no rest day or night for those who worship the beast and his image, or for anyone who receives the mark of his name." 12 This calls for patient endurance on the part of the saints who obey God's commandments and remain faithful to Jesus. PLEASE INDICATE TRUE OR FALSE: THE WARNING ABOUT THE MARK COMES BEFORE IT IS INSTITUTED T/F ( ) THE MARK IS FORCED ON PEOPLE BEFORE THE WARNING IS GIVEN T/F ( ) 13 Then I heard a voice from heaven say, "Write: Blessed are the dead who die in the Lord from now on." "Yes," says the Spirit, "they will rest from their labor, for their deeds will follow them." 14 I looked, and there before me was a white cloud, and seated on the cloud was one "like a son of man" with a crown of gold on his head and a sharp sickle in his hand. 15 Then another angel came out of the temple and called in a loud voice to him who was sitting on the cloud, "Take your sickle and reap, because the time to reap has come, for the harvest of the earth is ripe." 16 So he who was seated on the cloud swung his sickle over the earth, and the earth was harvested. IS THE ABOVE REAPING THE SAME AS THE GATHERING IN Matt 24 PASSAGE BELOW. Yes/No ( ) IS IT THE RAPTURE ? Yes/No ( ) IS IT THE FIRST RESURRECTION ? Yes/No ( ) DOES IT OCCUR AFTER THE RETURN OF CHRIST ? Yes/No ( ) [[[Matt 24:30 and then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in the sky, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the Son of man coming on the clouds of the sky with power and great glory. 31 "And He will send forth His angels with a great trumpet and the will gather together His elect from the four winds, from one end of the sky to the other.]]] Rev 14 (continued) 17 Another angel came out of the temple in heaven, and he too had a sharp sickle. 18 Still another angel, who had charge of the fire, came from the altar and called in a loud voice to him who had the sharp sickle, "Take your sharp sickle and gather the clusters of grapes from the earth's vine, because its grapes are ripe." 19 The angel swung his sickle on the earth, gathered its grapes and threw them into the great winepress of God's wrath. 20 They were trampled in the winepress outside the city, and blood flowed out of the press, rising as high as the horses' bridles for a distance of 1,600 stadia. IS THE SECOND REAPING THE GATHERING OF PEOPLE TO FIGHT AT ARMAGEDDON ? Yes/No ( ) THE WINEPRESS OF GOD'S WRATH IS THE BATTLE OF ARMAGEDDON? Yes/No ( ) ARE ALL EVENTS IN REV 14 IN THE SEQUENCE IN WHICH THEY ARE TO OCCUR ? Yes/No ( ) |
||||||
5 | i just dont understandthe verse. | Matt 1:1 | Emmy | 119358 | ||
Matt 10:21 "And brother will deliver up brother to death, and a father his child; and children will rise up against parents, and cause them to be put to death. THIS MEANS IN THE END TIMES PEOPLE WILL BETRAY ONE ANOTHER TO THE AUTORITIES. THIS WILL HAPPEN EVEN WITHIN FAMILLIES, RESULTING IN THE DEATH OF THOSE BETRAYED. Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
||||||
6 | Is there a scripture to document Jesus h | Isaiah | Emmy | 119355 | ||
Isaiah 53:2 He grew up before him like a tender shoot, and like a root out of dry ground. He had no beauty or majesty to attract us to him, nothing in his appearance that we should desire him. EVEN BEFORE CHRIST WAS BEATEN, HE WAS NOT GOOD LOOKING PHYSICALLY THAT ANYONE SHOULD BE ATTRACTED TO HIM FOR THAT REASON. BUT TO GOD THE FATHER HE WAS LIKE A FRESH SHOOT IN A DRY DESERT. Isaiah 52:14 Just as there were many who were appalled at him -- his appearance was so disfigured beyond that of any man and his form marred beyond human likeness-- THIS IS A DESCRIPTION OF HIM AS HE APPEARED IN HIS LAST HOURS. THE MOVIE ACCOUNT WAS PROBABLY NOT TOO FAR OFF, AS TO THE SEVERITY OF HIS STRIPES. We know of no other description. He was pierced on the cross, but it does not say that we know of that that occured also before His crucifixion Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
||||||
7 | End of Times ??? | NT general Archive 1 | Emmy | 119309 | ||
1 Th 5:4 But you, brethren, are not in darkness, that the day should overtake you like a thief; Does this not say that those knowing Christ will not be overtaken as by a thief. Therefore believers will know or realize when His coming is near? SIncerely Henry and Emmy |
||||||
8 | What does Romans 2:12 mean? | Rom 1:19 | Emmy | 119238 | ||
Hi Hank: Your question: Why do you place the burden on me to provide Scripture to prove your four statements false when you have not provided Scripture to prove them true? If I am wrong, I desire to know. You can help by trying to point out contradictions in my thinking. The statements: 1. Jesus died so that all sinners would have a chance at salvation. 2. No one can be saved except through Christ. 3. Jesus desires that all turn from sin and repent so they can be saved. 4. Not all have been aware of the gospel in their lifetime. My reasons for thinking this: Statement 3: 1 Tim 2:1 First of all, then, I urge that entreaties and prayers, petitions and thanksgivings, be made on behalf of all men,2 for kings and all who are in authority, in order that we may lead a tranquil and quiet life in all godliness and dignity. 3 This is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, 4 who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. Verse 4 says Christ desires that all men come to salvation. Statement 2: Acts4:12 "And there is salvation in no one else; for there is no other name under heaven that has been given among men, by which we must be saved." Statement 1: The only way to be saved is through His death and resurrection, therefore He died So all men would have a chance at salvation. Statement 4 is not in the gospel Here is why I believe it to be true. The scriptures were not written till well after a generation after the time of Christ. Therefore many died without having seen or heard the gospel Paul got as far as Rome, but the church was mostly in hiding, so very few in Rome actually Got to hear him, let alone those in Norway, and Russia. His letter got to the churches he wrote, but most others in these communities did not read or hear them. Can one argue that the gospel got to China, Australia, Mexico, Canada, South and Central America within the 1st say 100 years after Christ ? During exploration of the New World, is there record that one nation or tribe in any land were talking about, or had heard about the story of Christ being crucified so that they could be saved ? It seems that if the Europeans had found a tribe in the New World teaching Christ, then that would have been noticed and recorded In the excavations of cities or villages of cultures in the new world, has any one ever found any hint that these cultures made religious relics as evidence of Christ crucified ? Just because there is no evidence, does not constitute proof that it did not exist logically speaking, but, let me ask you, do you think the gospel existed in America before 1492 when Columbus came? If these statements are all true: 1. Christ died so all have a chance at redemption 2. Christ desires that all come to salvation 3. The only way to salvation is through Christ 4. Not all heard the gospel. Then the only conclusion that can be drawn is Christ desires to and can save those who have never heard the gospel. Can you point out a problem with either the scriptures quoted, or the logical truth of the statements made. Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
||||||
9 | What does Romans 2:12 mean? | Rom 1:19 | Emmy | 119235 | ||
Hi Steve: 1 Tim 2:1 First of all, then, I urge that entreaties and prayers, petitions and thanksgivings, be made on behalf of all men, 2 for kings and all who are in authority, in order that we may lead a tranquil and quiet life in all godliness and dignity. 3 This is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, 4 who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. I agree that this passage talks about praying. I understand it to say that this kind of praying is good and acceptable to God our Saviour who desires all men to be saved and come to the knowledge of the truth. I do not follow your reasoning when you say I took this out of context. This passage says two things. 1. Praying in the way indicated is good and acceptable to Christ 2. Christ desires that all men come to accept the offer of salvation , not just Kings and rulers. Are you saying the second statement is FALSE? If so why ? Can you find a passage that says Jesus intended to offer salvation to some but not others? In both verse 1 and 3,4 it says "all men". To me means all men, not just kings and rulers. Kings and rulers are mentioned in particular because we have a real interest in them doing things right for us to have a peaceful life. It says to me pray for all men, but especially for rulers. Here are some different translations of the same verses: ---------------------------------------------------------------------- 1The first thing I want you to do is pray. Pray every way you know how, for everyone you know. 2Pray especially for rulers and their governments to rule well so we can be quietly about our business of living simply, in humble contemplation. 3This is the way our Savior God wants us to live. 4He wants not only us but everyone saved, you know, everyone to get to know the truth we've learned MSG ------------------------------------------------------------------ 1I urge you, first of all, to pray for all people. As you make your requests, plead for God's mercy upon them, and give thanks. 2Pray this way for kings and all others who are in authority, so that we can live in peace and quietness, in godliness and dignity. 3This is good and pleases God our Savior, 4for he wants everyone to be saved and to understand the truth. ---------- John 6:45 "It is written in the prophets, 'AND THEY SHALL ALL BE TAUGHT OF GOD.' Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father, comes to Me. You ADD that this hearing and learning comes only through the gospel. The verse does not actually say what you added. My test: What does a verse say and what does a verse not say. You are limiting the Father from all other forms of communication which are listed as being used in the past. Does it actually say that the gospel is the only way left ? If so where ? Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
||||||
10 | What does Romans 2:12 mean? | Rom 1:19 | Emmy | 119232 | ||
Hi Hank This is the point I tried to make in the previous post. If I have the scriptures interpreted incorrectly, the best way for you to convince me of that fact is to point out that two interpretations I hold contradict each other. I hold that if two interpretations conflict, then at least one of them is wrong if not both, and I have to rethink the interpretations I hold. In fact discovering a contradiction within ones interpretations can lead to real learning. If you were trying to convince me that one has to have the gospel in order to be saved Try to find a contradiction within any statements I made on the topic. I will make some statements here that I consider to be TRUE. 1. Jesus died so that all sinners would have a chance at salvation. 2. No one can be saved except through Christ. 3. Jesus desires that all turn from sin and repent so they can be saved. 4. Not all have been aware of the gospel in their lifetime. If interested and you believe one of these statements is FALSE can you post a passage that you think supports that it is FALSE. Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
||||||
11 | What does Romans 2:12 mean? | Rom 1:19 | Emmy | 119141 | ||
Hi BradK Yours is a good plan. It reflects very well how we approach it It will work if God is with you. Sincerely Henry and Emmy. |
||||||
12 | What does Romans 2:12 mean? | Rom 1:19 | Emmy | 119087 | ||
Hi Hank: Thanks for the reply. No need to have a yes vs no session. I comment to things I see written on the forum to encourage people on it to think logically and read into any passsage only what it says. I post only those things I honestly believe are true,and logical. When I look at a passage, I test its meaning this way. 1. What does it actually say? Don't omit any thought 2. What does it not say ? Do not add anything it does not say. 3. Does the meaning I think it has, agree with all else I know about scriptures. If there is a contradiction between any two verses, then we try to change our thinking to resolve the conflict. This is how you can easily get us to change our thinking about any passage. Point out how one thought I post contradicts another thought I post. If a thought you hold contradicts thoughts I hold, then change in my thinking is not so easy to make. I thinks works the same for you and others. The challenge for us then, is to read all passages accurately.without adding or taking anything away,and having its meaning agree with other related thoughts in our belief. If you want to point out where my thinking is wrong on being able to be saved without having access to the gospel for instance do this. Send me the verse that you think states my thought is wrong. I'll send you my interpretration. You look for a contradiction between the verse in question and anything I have said so far on the forum. If you find a contradiction in my statements, I'll thank you for pointing it out and try to find out what is wrong with my thinking. We are into bible study for one purpose. To find out the truth about what the bible says. Alternatively you could post a passage that you think states one can only be saved if one has contact with the gospel Or that if they donot have the gospel they cannot be saved. Sincerely Henry and Emmy. |
||||||
13 | What does Romans 2:12 mean? | Rom 1:19 | Emmy | 119026 | ||
This is very interesting Steve. Thanks for your post. Agree with you that Christ died so that All might be redeemed, though we know not all will take the offer. 1 Tim 2:3 This is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, 4 who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. If Christ desires that all men be saved, means He makes the offer of salvation to all. If he did not make the offer to one person, then His desire would be NOT to save that person. John 5:24 you quoted. This verse speaks of ones who do hear the gospel. It says nothing about those that have not heard it, so we cannot conclude that those that do not hear will not be saved. It defies logic to do so. For the following verse, text is in small letters my COMMENT INSERTED IN CAPITAL LETTERS. John 6:44-45 No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him. THIS IS INDEPENDENT OF WHETHER ONE HAS THE GOSPEL TO READ OR NOT. IT IS NOT THE GOSPEL THAT DRAWS ONE TO CHRIST, BUT THE FATHER IN HEAVEN HIMSELF. And I will raise him up on the last day. It is written in the Prophets'and they will all be taught by God. Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father comes to Me. THE WRITTEN GOSPEL IS NOT MENTIONED AS BEING REQUIRED. WE HAVE TO HEAR DIRECTLY FROM THE FATHER AND LEARN FROM HIM TO COME TO CHRIST. HAVING THE GOSPEL BUT NOT BEING DRAWN IS OF NO USE TO US. Your comment: "The only way to Jesus is by hearing the word of God."cannot be found, at least that I know of, in the gospel. The only way to Christ is to be drawn by the FATHER is. In His drawing people to Christ, I do not see how that can be limited to the gospel, since many never came in contact with it. The great commission as it is called. Mark 16:15. The statement "go into all the world" is addressed to the 11 disciples. We assume they did what they were told. Many assume that that means all believers are to do this, which is not so, because it contradicts this passage. James 3:1 Not many of you should presume to be teachers, my brothers, because you know that we who teach will be judged more strictly. James 3:3:1 Let not many of you become teachers, my brethren, knowing that as such we shall incur a stricter judgment. The job it is of an angel in the end times to preach the gospel to all who dwell on the earth. It is therefore not possible for man to accomplish this in the first place at this point in time. If it were the task of men to do it, then why send an angel as well? Rev 14:6 And I saw another angel flying in midheaven, having an eternal gospel to preach to those who live on the earth, and to every nation and tribe and tongue and people; This preaching of the gospel seems to leave no one out. All hear it. even so not all heed it at this time. It is probably done as a last chance for all to change their minds and accept Christ. Lastly: Your comment we have NO biblical examples of any person being saved without God's special revelation of Himself to that person. Logically: No bear in your house does not mean they do not exist. You are perfectly correct however. The FATHER Himself draws us to Christ(We all get a personal revelation from the Father) but again that cannot be limited to the written gospel, since many thoughout history have had no access to it. We have to be careful what we teach, because teaching it wrong is not a good idea. The stricter judgement of teachers probably has something to do with teaching wrong things and thereby leading others astray, or harming them in some way. This is not to say that bible study and discussion is not good, quite the contrary, we learn lots from it. Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
||||||
14 | Are unbelievers in any way "saved"? | Heb 11:1 | Emmy | 118976 | ||
Hi GB: I have posted other explanations for your question, but was pointed in your direction by another person on the forum. In case you missed my posting I'll send this to you so that you will get notice of it personally. You are probably familiar with these two thoughts, which I believe to be true. 1. No one can be saved, except by Christ. 2. Christ died once for ALL. One does not have to hear the story about Christ crucified in order to be saved by Him. One need ever to come across the gospel in order to be saved by Him. Here is why. From the time of Christ to present times, NOT ALL have heard or read the gospel. In fact if it were necessary to hear the gospel, the gospel would have had to be available for ALL people the world over within one generation of Christ's death, else they could not be saved. YET Christ died for ALL. Not only would the gospel had to have been distributed throughout the world from the start, but it would have been available to all people all the time since the death and resurrection of Christ. Can one argue that the gospel was preached from the time of Christ's death to the time of discovery of America by the Europeans to the natives of North and South America ? The answer to that is that the natives of the America's during this period of time did NOT hear the gospel, yet Christ died for ALL. In short if Christ died for ALL. and All did not hear the gospel, then Christ died for those who hear the gospel, but also for those who do not hear the gospel. Romans 1:19 since what may be known about God is plain to them, because God has made it plain to them. 20 For since the creation of the world God's invisible qualities--his eternal power and divine nature--have been clearly seen, being understood from what has been made, so that men are without excuse. This is how one can be saved without hearing the gospel: 1.Observe the divine nature of God through creation 2.Make effort draw closer to God 3.If one draws close to God, God will draw close to that one. 4. Christ will reach out and save that person just as He saved one who reads and believes the gospel. This does not diminish the gospel in any way. It is miraculous, and full of wisdom and instruction. This same gospel says Christ died for ALL. Therefore one who has not heard the gospel is included. Sincerly Henry and Emmy. |
||||||
15 | What does Romans 2:12 mean? | Rom 1:19 | Emmy | 118943 | ||
Hi: Romans1:9 Means that people from the beginning of time of them being on earth, right to today, God has a hand in their consciousness, and gives all people evidence that He is God. If people ignore this, they have no excuse that will hold up at judgement. This was true for gentiles who did not have the OT laws, and is still true for people today after Christ, whose offer of salvation is open to ALL. It says HE died once for ALL, so there is no exception. Strange as it seems at first, just as in OT times Gentiles did not have the law, but are going to be held accountable, so today in NT times, those that do not hear the gospel, still have within them knowledge of God. If they follow through with what God has put in their consciousness, and draw close to Him, Christ will save them as He has promissed that HE died for ALL. If one thinks this is not possible, namely to be saved by Christ without having heard the gospel, one should be able to explain the following: Does it say in scripture that one HAS to hear the gospel in order to be saved by Christ? How did all American Natives get to hear the gospel before America was discovered by Europeans? If they did not hear the gospel, and it is necessary to hear it to be saved, then how can they be included among Christ's offer of salvation is for ALL ? My point is this: The gospel has not been heard by ALL. The offer of salvation is open to ALL. Therefore the gospel is not necessary for salvation. Even if the gospel was heard by all today with modern communications, it was not so for the last 2000 years. To us the only answer is that God makes himself known to man as explained in Romans 1 above. This knowledge must be enough to have people draw near to God and He to them, to save them as he saves anyone who hears the gospel and draws near and is saved. I am not in any way diminishing the importance of the gospel, but pointing out that as in OT God could reach and save Gentiles who did not hear the law, So in NT times HE can reach and save people who have not heard the gospel, since it says he died for all, but all have not heard the gospel. What say you? Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
||||||
16 | Individuals in Acts expecting tongues? | NT general Archive 1 | Emmy | 118850 | ||
Hi Kalos LOL on the code I sent that anyone can read. Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
||||||
17 | Individuals in Acts expecting tongues? | NT general Archive 1 | Emmy | 118849 | ||
Hi Kalos: Logically speaking you leave no option as which question to choose, A or B You say the question is not answered unless there is chapter or verse. Therefore one wanting to answer A cannot, because there would be no chapter and verse. This suggests you think the answer is B. I do not know why you come to that conclusion. That does not mean I disagree, just that I don't know. If you send me chapter and verse that you think applies, I'll tell you what we think it means. You can send it in code if you like. This would let your question stand for others on the forum. code 48 means 0 49 means 1 50 means 2 etc I know it is from Acts So if you send 4948:5049 I would decode as Acts 10:21 Sincerely Henry and Emmy P.S. Did I guess right about your choice of A or B? |
||||||
18 | reassurance of lambs book of life | Rev 20:15 | Emmy | 118825 | ||
Romans 1:19 since what may be known about God is plain to them, because God has made it plain to them. 20 For since the creation of the world God's invisible qualities--his eternal power and divine nature--have been clearly seen, being understood from what has been made, so that men are without excuse. This says that from the very beginning God made HImself evident through creation, and because this has always been sufficient to make connection with God. There is no reason why this is not still so. Once having made the connection, God will supply all that is needed for eternal life by whatever means that is. In these last times it is through Christ by the Holy Spirit. I think it is assumed incorrectly that the Spirit cannot teach all that is required to know so that one is saved through Christ, though having never heard or read the scriptures, they are without excuse. If this is not how the natives of North America from Christ's time to 1492are to connect to God, and receive life, how could they be saved, having no access to the gospel either in word or in writing ? Is it possible that an North American Indian of that time period looked at creation as it states here, and tried to draw close to the creator, and was saved through Jesus the redeemer of all that are redeemed, and the only redeemer. If it was possible for an Indian to be redeemed, or saved he/she would be saved by no other than Christ. If it were not possible, then Jesus did not die for ALL, but just for some who had access to hearing or reading the gospel. If the hearing or reading of the gospel is really essential for salvation, one must conclude the vital part of the gospel required by these Indians must have somehow reached them. before whiteman arrived. How could one explain that? Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
||||||
19 | reassurance of lambs book of life | Rev 20:15 | Emmy | 118822 | ||
Hi Colin: Revelation is revelation whether from nature or other sources. They are both valid because they are from God. Each serves it own purpose. Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
||||||
20 | The dead know nothing ??? | Eccl 9:5 | Emmy | 118821 | ||
Hi Colin: Matt 17:12 but I say to you, that Elijah already came, and they did not recognize him, but did to him whatever they wished. So also the Son of Man is going to suffer at their hands." This clearly says as Elijah was killed, so He(Jesus) was to be put to death. Now we know Elijah was not killed when He was here firs time, He was killed as John and Baptist. Perhaps you cannot see it that way, buy we cannot see it as anything other than what I have suggested. A difference of opinion ought not as is often the case cause hard feelings among believers, unless the teachings are anti-Christ. I trust you agree. Sincerely Henry and Emmy |
||||||
Result pages: [ 1 2 3 4 5 ] Next > Last [5] >> |