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|Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Unanswered Bible Questions
Author: jawz Ordered by Date
|1||Sola Scriptura supported by bible?||Bible general Archive 1||jawz||48016|
|Hank, I take it you are sola scriptura. Can you provide scripture to support this stand?
Sorry, but you did slip a left jab in there regarding church traditions, so I feel entitled to a response.
|2||Did Mary and Joseph marry?||Matt 1:25||jawz||47712|
|Hank, you make a big deal about marriage here, but I must ask you this; Where in the NT does it say that Joseph and Mary were married? It says they were betrothed, but nowhere does it say they progressed beyond this stage. The traditional understanding is that a betrothal gives a couple all the responsibilities of marriage, but none of the privileges. Once betrothed, one can only break the betrothal with a divorce. Nevertheless, the couple were not permitted to have marital relations until after the marriage ceremony.|
|3||Was Mary a virgin her whole life||Matt 1:25||jawz||47584|
|srbaegon: You are trying to use english grammatical rules with greek text, but english and greek grammar are very different creatures. Also regarding John 7:5, if they were Mary's children they would have had the responsibility of looking after their mother whether they believed in Jesus or not. Quite clearly however, they did believe after Jesus' resurrection, look at Acts 1:14. So if they were Mary's children there is absolutely no reason for Jesus entrust his mother to John. They are not Mary's children which is why Jesus does so.
Lionstrong: It make make perfect sense to you in English, but in Greek the opposite meaning is clear.
Hank: I gave a subjective opinion of mine as a follow on from the points I had made, perhaps that was a mistake. The points, however, stand on their own and are not the result of my opinion. I would ask you to consider why Mary and Joseph got married at all, since Joseph was not the father of Jesus. However, if Mary was to have a child with no apparent father, all would have assumed that she had commited adultery and as a consequence she would have been stoned to death. Thus Joseph was necessary to give the semblance of fatherhood to Mary's child in order to protect her reputation and life. It does not automatically follow that they had sexual relations as a normal husband and wife. I think it is an understatement to say that they were far from a normal husband and wife. You again quote Matt 1:25 and state that my "translation" goes against every reliable translation that exists in English. I'm not giving you a translation though, I am telling you what is says in Greek. Unfortunately, all literal translations of the text in English miss this point because we read with English grammar and not with Greek. I will quote other passages below to illustrate this point.
Also, there is no mention of other children early on in Jesus life. In Luke 2:41 it tells how Mary and Joseph went every year to Jerusalem for the Feast of the Passover. When Jesus was twelve years old and they were returning home, Jesus had stayed at the temple without them being aware of it. They assumed he was with friends or "relatives" in their company and travelled a day before going back to search for him. Note that this is twelve years after their marriage and there is only Joseph, Mary and Jesus, plus their relatives. There is no mention of other children.
Psalm 72:7 "In his days the righteous will flourish;prosperity will abound till the moon is no more."
Does this mean that when the moon is no more the righteous will no longer flourish?
1 Corinthians 15:25 "For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet."
Does this mean that Christ will no longer reign after all his enemies are put under his feet?
Psalm 123:2 "As the eyes of slaves look to the hand of their master, as the eyes of a maid look to the hand of her mistress, so our eyes look to the Lord our God, till he shows us his mercy."
So when God shows us his mercy, we no longer look to the Lord our God?
Matthew 28:18-20 Then Jesus came to them and said, "All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you. And surely I am with you always, to (eos/until) the very end of the age."
Again, does this mean that at the end of the age Jesus will leave us?
The answer to all the above is no, the conditions are not bound by the events but rather are ongoing, eternal. The whole point of Matthew 1:25 is to state clearly that Joseph and Mary did not have sexual relations. In Greek it is clearly understood to mean this, there is no ambiguity. That is the "plain reading of the text" in Greek and all mention of Jesus' brothers and sisters in the scriptures must be understood in the light of this fact.