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Results from: Notes Author: dwilliamson Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Star of Bethleham | Matt 2:1 | dwilliamson | 219902 | ||
Temple The way in which your question is phrased leads me to wonder whether there is point in answering. I take it you fully accept the scriptural account? The wise men were searching for the One "born king of the Jews". The natural place for them to go was the royal court! They obviously were not aware of the details of Herods insanely jealous nature. Anyway, the scripture has nothing negative to say about their actions. They were a few gentiles who came to worship the King when the Jews had no heart for Him. They were obedient when they were warned to return by a different route. David |
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2 | Greek of Luke 1.36: hosei/about | Luke 1:56 | dwilliamson | 219567 | ||
Rick My understanding of the subject is evidently slightly different than you. I'll have to look into it again! I appreciate that betrothal was much stronger than our "engagement" but I believe that during the betrothal period: 1. The husband and wife did not live together. 2. There was no intimate physical relationship. What the betrothal period allowed for was (among other things) any previous misdemeanour by either party to come to light prior to the "marriage". Thus allowing for the "putting away" which was being considered by Joseph before he was informed as to the cause. Well, as has been said in relation to this section there is no definitive 'thus saith the Lord' answer as to the timing of Marys return to Nazareth. We are left to our own impression so we can't be too dogmatic! As you have clearly said "He soon found out from an authoritative source that everything was OK." And what faith and obedience he showed when he "took unto him his wife and knew her not until she had brought forth her first-born Son and called His name Jesus". In Him David |
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3 | free will or predestine ? | Bible general Archive 4 | dwilliamson | 217808 | ||
Hello Joel There are many passages in scripture in support of a "free will" as it is referred to. The expression itself is unscriptural in that it implies that the will is not affected by other influences. Whether we believe in human responsibility or not (and I do - very strongly) we can't help but see that the will of man has been and is affected by the fall. As to Scriptures that support a "choice" on the part of man see the following: For example, every appeal by God for the sinner to "believe" automatically assumes that the person who receives such a command CAN respond to it. It is worth noting that on each occasion that this appeal is given, the word "believe" is in the active voice, it is never passive. The fact also that the appeal to "believe" or to "call" etc is shown to be universal in character (rather than to the "elect" only) is shown in such well known scriptures as: John 3v16 "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life". Romans 10v11-13 "For the scripture saith, Whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed. For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him. For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved", 1 Timothy 2v3-4 "For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour; Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth". God holds MAN responsible for not believing - see John 3v18 "He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God." In the consideration of Scripture (see for example Romans 1-3) God holds man responsible for HIS OWN ACTIONS. When the Lord Jesus was here he made a statement concerning Jerusalem which is worth noting in Matt 23v37 and Luke 13v34 "O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, which killest the prophets, and stonest them that are sent unto thee; how often would I have gathered thy children together, as a hen doth gather her brood under her wings, and ye would not!" Notice here that the Lord says "I would have gathered...but ye would not". This implies a free-will on the part of those who rejected Him. To be honest, the principle of choice is a part of the whole fabric of scripture. Man is responsible for the choices he makes in every sphere - because he has been given a "will" which can be exercised in one of 2 ways - obedience or disobedience to God. This is by no means an overview of the argument for man having a choice, it is just a few verses which spring to mind that imply such a thing. In all of this we are not setting aside the fact of Divine Purpose. In Him David |
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4 | Need interpretation for these verses | Rom 2:12 | dwilliamson | 217739 | ||
Hello again eascusa As to question 2. In 1 Corinthians Ch 5 Paul is writing concerning how discipline should be carried out in the local church. The person who has sinned in this chapter is a person who was in the fellowship of the local church - a place of privilege and protection. Because of the severe nature of the sin committed, he is to be excommunicated from that fellowship - see v13 "put away from among yourselves that wicked person". Now, in putting such a person away from the church I believe they are "delivering him unto Satan" in the sense that he is put out into the sphere where Satan has control - i.e. the world. God who judges those who are without (see v13) uses even the attacks of Satan to discipline his people in order that they be restored to fellowhip first with God Himself and then with the church. So, what is intended result from this discipline? The answer is "for the destruction of the flesh" i.e. So that the fleshly nature which has so taken over the life of this believer might be nullified in its power over him. And "the spirit saved in the day of the Lord Jesus" i.e. That his spiritual life might be recovered in view of the Judgment seat of Christ. Again hope this is helpful. In Him David PS. I should note that the translation I have used is the KJV. |
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5 | Our authority in His name? | John 6:29 | dwilliamson | 217728 | ||
BradK Thanks for your reply to my query. Sorry for my delay as I have been so busy this last few days. I will say that I never thought that you were anything else than sincere and desirous to uphold sound doctrine. I agree with much of your post but not with the following: "He took upon himself limitations of place (space) and of knowledge and of power, though still on earth retaining more of these than any mere man. It is here that men should show restraint and modesty, though it is hard to believe that Jesus limited himself by error of knowledge and certainly not by error of conduct." [A.T Robertson, Word Pictures] I do agree with further statements such as "The words “made Himself nothing” are, literally, “He emptied Himself.” “Emptied,” from the Greek kenoo, points to the divesting of His self-interests, but not of His deity." and "In His incarnation He was fully God and fully man at the same time. He was God manifest in human flesh (John 1:14)." [Bible Knowledge Commentary]. My issue with what is taught at times concerning the Lord Jesus is that human reasoning is put beyond Divine revelation. Consider the following: 1. We acknowledge that the Lord asked questions of men BUT read EVERY chapter in Johns Gospel and note the references in every chapter which reveal the infinite knowledge of the Lord. There were no limitations as to His knowledge. 2. We acknowledge that the Scripture says He was "crucified through weakness" BUT he still managed to "uphold all things by the word of His power" (Hebrews 1). There was no limitation as to His Power. 3. The Lord presently has a "fleshly body" in the sense that it is a body of "flesh and bone" and he sits "on the right hand of the majesty on high" BUT He still promises (as He did upon earth) that "where two or three are gathered together in my Name, there am I in the midst of them" (Matt 18v20). There was no limitations as to his "place". Thus, He is both God and Man - he passed through the experiences true to humanity, but He never relinquished His Deity to do so. This is one of the facts that should draw out worshio from our hearts! J B Watson noted ""How do both deity and humanity dwell in one Person at the same time? How can Christ on the one hand be God and yet be verily man? How did the divine attributes dwell with those that are proper to manhood? How, if He is God and is thus omniscient, does He learn? I do not know. This is a revelation for faith; it is not a subject for prying and investigation. It is one before which we are intended to stand with worshipping hearts and not one into which we are intended to look with our poor cheap microscopes. Nay, here is the revelation - perfect God - perfect Man - one Christ" [J B Watson, Our Matchless Lord p. 22] The same writer noted "The Bible is full of truths which we do not have the intellectual power to reconcile". This is what I believe. Thanks In Him David |
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6 | Our authority in His name? | John 6:29 | dwilliamson | 217719 | ||
Medchill Thank you very much. My brother Andrew does log off completely, then I go into the computer at a completely different time and log in under my id. The home screen shows "Welcome dwilliamson" but then when I post the author is shown as AWilliamson! The reason this post is under dwilliamson is because I am using the work computer. Confusing! Any further advice, let me know. Thanks. In Him David |
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7 | Our authority in His name? | John 6:29 | dwilliamson | 217680 | ||
Hello Tim, I thought that these might come up! As to the Matt 24v36 passage - I'll get back to you later as I'm not at home at the min. As to the Luke 2v52 passage I have no problems at all. Wisdom is the practical application of knowledge. The Lord grew in the experiential application of knowledge throughout His pathway upon earth. There are things that were not experienced prior to His coming that He experienced upon earth - we know that from the Hebrew epistle. You are aware that it has now been stated that the One Who is "God with us" (Matt 1) was not omnipresent and was not omniscient. At this rate it will not be long before someone declares that He was not eternal or omnipotent. And then I ask you (I speak as a fool) is He God at all? I submit that when the Lord became incarnate He was not God minus anything, He was God plus holy humanity. That is the way Scripture speaks of His incarnation. (Heb 2, Matt 1, Luke 1, Romans 9 etc). Will post later DV. In Him David |
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8 | Our authority in His name? | John 6:29 | dwilliamson | 217677 | ||
Dear BradK I am sorry to have to disagree with you on both counts. I am in work presently and dont have the time either to discuss this very important question at the moment but possibly another thread should be started on this. Briefly. I don't believe that we can say that the Lord had limited attributes of Deity upon earth - to have limited attributes of Deity is necessarily to be less than God. The attributes of Deity are what mark God out to be Who He is! So if a Person is not Omniscient, Omnipresent, Omnipotent, Eternal etc we can safely say that such is not God. Philippians 2 must be kept in its context. There are a number of examples in that chapter of "the mind of Christ" - Paul is seeking to inculcate an ATTITUDE within the church at Philippi and he gives examples of that attitude. What is that attitude? "look not every man on his own things but every man also on the things of other". It is an attitude whereby we seek the benefit of others. Now how does this apply to the Lord? He is eternally "in the form of God", personally He cannot change but He does change His position. Knowing all that He is, recognising that He is equal with God in position, He "empties Himself" - this cannot be of Deity or He is not God - the point is simply that He does not act for Himself but rather for others! This stoop for the benefit of others is then described in the further statements "took upon Him the form of a servant etc..." Personally I would appeal - Do not read into Philippians 2 more than what is intended in the context. How could our Lord be an example by the setting aside of attributes? He is an example because, although He IS what He is, He is willing to stoop to think upon "the things of others". Another statement you have made is "He was limited to a fleshly body, so that He wasnt omnipresent while on earth". Can I ask - when God lived among men in the Tabernacle in the wilderness "within the veil, between the 2 cherubim" did that mean that He was not Omnipresent? Did that mean He was nowhere else? "The Word was God...the Word became flesh and tabernacled among us" (John 1). Not meaning to cause any arguments on this most sacred of subjects - the Person of Christ - but I do feel we need to be careful limiting Him in any way. One final thing - I know that there are Scriptures which are often quoted at this point which appear to limit Him - these again must be read in their context and against the background of the clear teaching of Scripture that Christ is God. In Him David |
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9 | Our authority in His name? | John 6:29 | dwilliamson | 217674 | ||
BradK I believe that the "sign gifts" are no longer active today. However, without trying to bring you off on a tangent here - Could you clarify/qualify the statement you have made "Christ was limited while on earth"? Thanks David |
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10 | Eternal life promised by God? | Titus 1:2 | dwilliamson | 217673 | ||
Thank you Lexus That's an interesting point in relation to the Garden of Eden/Paradise. I would agree that God's original intention will always have it's fulfilment. Someone has said "God's first thought is His final thought!" While Satan appears to have gained a victory by the entrance of sin, God will see to it that every vestige of sin is removed from His creation. (See Romans 8v19-21 "For the anxious longing of the creation waits eagerly for the revealing of the sons of God. For the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly, but because of Him who subjected it, in hope that the creation itself also will be set free from its slavery to corruption into the freedom of the glory of the children of God.") This balance of things in Gods purpose is interesting - See eg. 1 Corinthians 15v21-22 "For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ all will be made alive." I hadn't perhaps related that to the immediate context because the promise of eternal life spoken of here was "BEFORE THE WORLD BEGAN" (KJV). I think the answer has been given to my mind by Searcher in a previous post - I will think about what has been said on this forum but! Thank you brother In Him David |
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11 | Eternal life promised by God? | Titus 1:2 | dwilliamson | 217666 | ||
Thanks very much Makarios. In Him David |
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12 | Eternal life promised by God? | Titus 1:2 | dwilliamson | 217654 | ||
Makarios Thanks for that. I think I'm right in saying that John usually refers to "eternal life" in the present. He is speaking of the fact that we have received the same life as the Father - the quality of life! Paul on the other hand refers to "eternal life" in the future because he is thinking of the time when we will enter into all the fulness of that life and enjoy it without restriction. I can't just understand your final statement "This eternal life is in Christ, who was before the world began (John 17:5) and is through Christ alone - this is the promise of eternal life to us before the world began." I'd appreciate it if you would clarify exactly what you mean as it sounds interesting! Are you saying that Christ (in glory, prior to His Incarnation) is Himself the promise of eternal life? In Him David |
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13 | Eternal life promised by God? | Titus 1:2 | dwilliamson | 217653 | ||
Searcher Thats the way I had thought of it. As you say "The promise was there, but not written, because there was no writing." In a sense we could say that the purpose in Gods heart was as good as a promise - it definitely would be fulfilled! There is no doubt, as others have said , that there is reference to eternal life (in one form or another) in the OT - but my query was regarding the fact that it was promised "BEFORE THE WORLD BEGAN". Thanks In Him David |
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14 | The Suffering of the Church | Acts 8:2 | dwilliamson | 217635 | ||
Dear Mike I'm sure all of us have made a blanket statement at some stage which was later shown to be incorrect. I certainly appreciate your honesty and willingness to "concede and accept correction". Hope we all are marked by that same spirit. And I say that first of all to myself! In Him David |
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15 | U.F.O's | 2 Tim 1:9 | dwilliamson | 217610 | ||
Hello mamayama1 I must say I agree absolutely with the statements of BradK and Makarios. The Word of God is described as "the faith" (see Jude 1v3 among many other Scriptures). If this means anything, it means that the Word of God should be the basis of all that we believe. The Scripture speaks of "deceitful spirits" - see for example 1 Timothy 4v1 "But the Spirit explicitly says that in later times some will fall away from the faith, paying attention to deceitful spirits and doctrines of demons..." Experiences may seem real and impressive to us but we cannot build our understanding of God upon our experiences. If we want to know God, if we want to know His will etc - we find it in the Bible. One statement that I am alarmed by in your question is "I am taught that scripture has its own message to the reader". Does this mean that the same Scripture has a different interpretation depending on who we are? This is not true - "God is not the author of confusion" (1 Corinthians 14v33) which would certainly be the result if each could interpret Scripture as they desired! No my friend "All Scripture is given...that the man of God may be perfect (i.e complete), throughly furnished unto all good works". We have the Holy Spirit within to enable us to interpret the Scriptures of truth and this should be (and is) enough for us. My advice would be that you begin a daily reading program and ask the Lord to reveal by His Spirit the truth of what is contained in the Scripture in its context. This will bring stability and joy and will leave you no longer craving for extra-biblical experiences! Hope this is helpful. In Christ David |
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16 | The Suffering of the Church | Acts 8:2 | dwilliamson | 217608 | ||
Hope I dont presume to go too far by adding the following verses which I found in an old magazine called "Things New and Old". No author details are given. Have Ye Counted the Cost? Have ye counted the cost! Have ye counted the cost! Ye warriors of the Cross? Are ye fixed in heart, for your Master's sake, To suffer all earthly loss? Can ye bear the scoff of the worldly-wise, As ye pass by pleasure's bower, To watch with your Lord, on the mountain top, Through the dreary midnight hour? In the power of His might! In the power of His might! Who was made thro' weakness strong, Ye shall overcome in the fearful fight! And sing His victory song! But count ye the cost; yea, count ye the cost -The forsaking all ye have! Then take up your cross and follow your Lord, Not thinking your life to save! By the " blood of the Lamb," - By the " blood of the Lamb,"' - By the faithful witness Word! Not loving your lives unto death for Him, Ye shall triumph with your Lord! So count ye the cost; yea, count ye the cost, Ye warriors of the cross! Yet in royal faith and in royal love, Count all selfish gain but loss.' O! the banner of love! O! the banner of love! It will cost you a pang to hold! But 'twill float in triumph the field above. Though your heart's blood stain its fold. Ye may count the cost! ye may count the cost Of all Egyptians treasure! But the riches of Christ ye cannot count - His love ye cannot measure! In Him David |
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17 | The Suffering of the Church | Acts 8:2 | dwilliamson | 217606 | ||
Searcher A marvellous story. See my personal profile. The suffering of those martyrs is the means which God used to cause me to desire to know Him more. The discipleship statements of the Lord Jesus promise a path of suffering for the believer in Him. See eg. Matthew 8v19-20. Here the "scribe" who came to the Lord promises to "follow...whithersoever Thou goest" - the Lord has to remind the scribe that "the foxes have holes, the birds of the air have nests, but the Son of Man hath not where to lay His head"! In other words, to follow the Lord Jesus is necessarily to walk a path of suffering in this world. Is this not the world that rejected Him from His birth, is it not the world that crucified the Lord? How then can His servants "reign as kings" in His absence (see 1 Corinthians Ch4v8-16.) Think of the sufferings of David the "sweet Psalmist of Israel" - if he had not experienced his suffering would we have had the Psalms which so eloquently express the truly pious heart? We would be the poorer without them! In Colossians 1v24 Paul records "Now I rejoice in my sufferings for your sake, and in my flesh I do my share on behalf of His body, which is the church, in filling up what is lacking in Christ's afflictions" (NASB). Evidently Paul does not speak of the atoning sufferings of Christ - in which no person but Christ Himself had a part! He speaks rather of suffering as associated with Christ "on behalf of His body, which is the church". Now, having said all of this, it seems necessary to state that Satan does have a part often in suffering. Job is the prime example of this BUT it must be recognised that God was ever in control and Satan could not go beyond the limits God set! Thus Satan, with all his power and cruelty is unable to cause one particle of suffering to a Christian without the prior knowledge of God Himself. In Him David |
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18 | The Gospel of Christ | Romans | dwilliamson | 217578 | ||
Dear all Apologies for the use of my brothers username - it was completely inadvertant and was the result of my sharing his computer briefly. I think it was about 12.30am this morning (by our time) and so I was possibly bleary eyed at the time. Also, the fact that I signed myself as David on the posts I think is sufficient to show that this was unintentional. Sorry!! As to the welcomes I've received to the forum - I appreciate them all very much. Doc, Thanks for the advice/direction as to where to obtain a good summary of Luthers life. In Him David |
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19 | Un-repented Sin | Heb 6:6 | dwilliamson | 217559 | ||
Thank you both Doc and stjohn for your kind welcome to the forum. In Him, David |
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20 | Un-repented Sin | Heb 6:6 | dwilliamson | 217540 | ||
Vintage I understand your problem. As to Hebrews Ch6v4-6 the answer lies in the context of the book. This epistle was written to early Hebrew people who had professed to become Christians. They had been associated with Judaism in the past but had accepted (at least nominally) that Jesus was the Messiah. Now, the danger was that having taken such a stand, when persecution came they would go back to side with the nation that had crucified their Messiah. In Hebrews 6 note the following v1-3 The pronouns are "us" and "we" v4-8 The pronouns are "they" and "them" v9-12 The pronouns are "you" and "your". I submit the following as my understanding of the passage. In v1-3 the group spoken of incorporates everyone who professed that Jesus was the Messiah (whether they had truly received Him or not). In v4-8 the group spoken of are Jewish people with unique privileges and blessings who had come under great influence and knew that He was the Messiah but, they openly rejected Him and took sides with the nation of Israel against Him therefore they "again crucify to themselves the Son of God and put Him to an open shame" Hebrews 6v6. From v9 onwards true believers are the subject - see v9 "But, beloved, we are convinced of better things concerning you, and things that accompany salvation". The writer to the Hebrews is convinced concerning his readers of what? That they have salvation - and therefore what is stated in v4-8 will not be true of them. I will give a fuller exposition of above later if you require - i'm not at home with my notes at present! As to the 1 John 3v6-8 passage. It must be remembered that John writes in Black and white terms. The tense he uses in respect of sin is present continuous as I remember and he is stating that a person who is in the family of God will not continue sinning as a habit of life. The issue in John is this, we have received the same life as our Father "eternal life" (if we are born again), thus we will show family characteristics. So a person who professes to be in Gods family and yet consistently lives in sin and has no realisation of the fact that God is Light is not in the family of God at all. Salvation cannot be lost, see for example John10 v27-30. It does not depend on me, it depends on Christ and the value of His blood. Again, hope this is helpful, if I can clarify anything let me know. In Him David |
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