Results 201 - 220 of 1928
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Results from: Notes Author: Reformer Joe Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
201 | How did sin originate | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 43922 | ||
You wrote: " Now as to Lucifer I have heard 3 differant points of view on who he was 1st Satan, 2nd Adam ,3rd the Antichrist. I think the scriptures rule out Satan because we no that by man sin entered into the world.So I think it to be the 2nd or 3rd option." Satan is the serpent. Satan is Lucifer. Sin entered the world by ONE man, Adam (Romans 5:12), when he allowed himself to be tempted into rebellion against God. --Joe! |
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202 | What do you base this on? | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 44191 | ||
Scott: You wrote: "The first 2 i'll just touch on as I myself lean towards the antichrist. The 3 opinion will be in more detail.Lets start by looking at who Lucifer is , he is called the king of Babylon Is.14:4 and he is said to be a man verse 16. Now if Lucifer is Satan how come he is called a man? nowhere in the bible that I know of does it call Satan a man. So this rules out Satan being Lucifer." Only verses 12-14 are addressed toward Lucifer, as the being standing behind what is going on in Babylon. Again, Lucifer is no more the actual human king of Babylon in Isaiah's time than he is the human king of Tyre in Ezekiel's day. Lucifer is Satan, the one who has fallen from heaven (verse 12). In Ezekiel, Lucifer is described as a cherub -- an ANGEL. Lucifer is Satan. Your analysis is flawed. You discount that Lucifer is Satan because part of the prophecy is directed toward a MAN, and then you accept the "antichrist" theory and say he is only LIKE a cherub, rather than an actual cherub like the prophecy directly states when referring to Lucifer. Go with what historically has been held by the church. Lucifer is Satan. --Joe! |
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203 | How did sin originate | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 44541 | ||
Talk about me behind my back, will you?!? :) --Joe! |
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204 | How did sin originate | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 44542 | ||
Hank: The brackets save us time from quoting the entire Old and New Testaments! :) --Joe! |
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205 | How did sin originate | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 44544 | ||
Hey, Congregationalist! It is good to know that there are still a few self-proclaimed Congregationalists that hold to the Jonathan Edwards line of thinking rather than succumbing to liberal theology. Why don't you take a few minutes to create a personal profile so we all know a little more about you. --Joe! |
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206 | How did sin originate | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 44687 | ||
I think you misunderstood his question. He is asking that how does God decreeing that the fall would occur mean that we would be the author of sin. Make the connection between those ideas, becuase it was you who who said that you can't have one without the other. --Joe! |
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207 | How did sin originate | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 44690 | ||
Oops...I mean how would that make Him (God) the author of sin? :) --Joe! |
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208 | How did sin originate | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 44758 | ||
New Creature: Calvinists do not disagree with what you say about Adam and Eve, since they were not born "fallen." The Bible is very clear that we are unable to please God on our own -- to OBEY Him -- having become a sinful race of human beings (Romans 8:7). We are completely incapable of honoring God. Those who are not in Christ are doing nothing -- NOTHING -- which brings glory to God, and are therefore storing up wrath for themselves (Romans 2:5; Ephesians 2:3). Surely you are not saying that they CAN choose to obey God when the Bible clearly says that they are incapable of doing so as unregenerate beings! By the way, God's fore-ordaining of events does not mean that he CAUSES everything Himself. What is does mean is that He either causes it Himself or ALLOWS it to happen. Both are aspects of His decree. He did not make Adam sin, but it obviously did not take Him by surprise that He did. Christ was never "plan B" after Adam messed everything up. Christ was "plan A" from eternity past. Therefore, Adam's sin must be part of God's eternal decree, simply because it happened. You wrote: "I still hold that your ideas on this would mean that God is the author of sin." And repeating this statement does not equal EXPLAINING it. That was Congregationalist's question. --Joe! |
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209 | How did sin originate | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 44821 | ||
You wrote: "(1) If God is all-powerful, then He could save all persons." Yes, COULD. "(2) If God is all-loving, then He would save all persons." What do you mean by "all-loving"? What Scripture are you using to support that God is "all-loving"? If God is "all-loving" in the way that you seem to be defining it, why didn't he give EVERYONE a chance to build an ark? Why didn't he choose the whole world instead of on particular people group out of all the nations in the world to be the recipients of His covenant and His favor? Why did God tell the Israelites to completely blot out everyone who lived in Canaan rather than to evangelize them? Why did God raise up nations to judge rebellious Israel, only for those nations to be utterly destroyed? Why does God allow for heathens to be born, live, and die without EVER hearing the gospel or even the name of Jesus Christ? In short, where do you get the idea that "God loves everyone equally"? --Joe! |
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210 | How did sin originate | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 44902 | ||
You wrote: "Are you saying God is not all loving? That God shows partiality?" Of course that it is what I am saying. God shows partiality all through Scripture. God chose Abraham over every other person alive at the time. God chose Jacob and not Esau. God chose Moses (to the exclusion of everyone else) to lead His chosen people (all other nations being excluded) to the land which He had chosen for them (and they were to obliterate all of those people currently occupying the land of His chosen people). He chose judges. He chose Samuel. He chose David. He chose his prophets. He chose Mary. God the Son chose His disciples. God chose Paul. God most definitely shows partiality and bestows favor unequally on His creation. In other words, God doesn't have to limit himself to the principles of democracy, sine he is the King. It is only wrong to say that He chose all of those people because they deserved to be chosen. You wrote: "God was longsuffering and patient with the ungodly in the days of Noah. Noah was a preacher of righteousness. The peoples hearts became hardened. But God gave them 120 years to repent under the preaching of Noah to repent, and they did not. God is not at fault here for the failure of men." Where do you see that God was being patient toward the world in the days of Noah? It is very clear from Genesis 3 that He purposed to destroy every single human being besides the eight he saved. If you are referring to God's patience in 1 Peter 3:20, that patience in unleashing His wrath was for the sake of Noah, who was building the ark, NOT for those He was planning on destroying. Go read the verse again. As for 1 Peter 3:9, the Calvinist understanding of that verse within the context of the entire epistle has been posted here ad nauseam. Do a search for it. "Why didn't he choose the whole world instead of on particular people group out of all the nations in the world to be the recipients of His covenant and His favor? My Answer: The recipients of God's favor are those who by grace through faith receive the gift of salvation which is freely offered. The OT saints received and embraced Christ through faith the same as NT saints. God's way of salvation has not changed over the years. Abraham was saved by faith, and we too are saved by exercising faith in Christ." I don't disagree with how OT saints were saved, but that doesn't address my point at all. Salvation before Pentecost was limited almost exclusively to the nation of Israel. It was Israel who received the Law of Moses, it was Israel who was God's covenant people, it was the system of sacrifices and ceremonies given to the Israelites which prefigured the Messiah. Nowhere do we see in the Old Testament where the Israelites were commanded to spread the "good news of Yahweh" to convert the pagan nations. The oracles of God were given to Israel alone (Romans 3:1-2), and Jesus Himself said that salvation is from the Jews (John 4:22). It is quite obvious that God established His testimony with Jacob (Psalm 78:5) and that Israel was God's chosen people above all others until the ministry of the apostles began. You wrote: "Why did God tell the Israelites to completely blot out everyone who lived in Canaan rather than to evangelize them? Answer: The various reasons for this is probably because God in His foreknowledge, and omniscience knew that the heathen people would not be receptive to the gospel." Where is your Scripture to support this? You are begging the question by saying that your view is supported by your view. --Joe! |
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211 | How did sin originate | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 44903 | ||
New Creature: You wrote: 'Why did God raise up nations to judge rebellious Israel, only for those nations to be utterly destroyed? My Answer: God raised up nations, kingdoms, and kings as means of discipline against as you yourself state "rebellious Israel" or disobedient Israel, which ever wording you choose. It is because God loves His people and a loving Father disciplines His children with love.' I am in complete agreement with what you say here, but again you miss my point. My point was those nations which God used were not His children, and God's purpose was not that these pagan nations become part of God's covenant people, but rather that they serve their purpose and then be destroyed. Lastly, you wrote: "Why does God allow for heathens to be born, live, and die without EVER hearing the gospel or even the name of Jesus Christ? Answer: Since the fall in the garden, everyone born since, is born heathen, including you and I. We were not born saved. As to to the second part of this question I don't agree with that statement." Whether we are born saved or not has nothing to do with this discussion. As to the second part of the question, Romans 1 does not address the GOSPEL at all. Romans 1:20 says that the attributes of God the Father have been clearly revealed in creation, leaving human beings without excuse. Secondly, Romans 2 tells us that God gave everyone a moral sense, a conscience. Both the "light of creation" and the "light of conscience" serve to render deal with God's existence and God's law, and leaves all men with their mouth's closed before God's righteous judgment (Romans 3:19). However, none of that has to do with the only provision for escaping God's judgment. The gospel is not revealed in creation; the law of God is. The gospel is not revealed to all men in their consciences; the condemnation from the law is. The gospel falls under the category of special revelation, not general revelation, and Paul attests to this himself in Romans 10:14. The fact is that ever minute dozens of people die in their sins never having heard the gospel of Christ, and they are still without excuse because God's standard of righteousness has been revealed to them. Therefore, God does not provide the gospel to all human beings. So, God does treat some individuals differently than others, based on nothing else but His own counsel (Ephesians 1:11). Scripture clearly shows that. I did not do anything to earn God's saving grace, and nothing in myself merits it; I deserve precisely the opposite. Nonetheless, God has extended it to me and not others. God chose me like He has always chosen His people. --Joe! |
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212 | How did sin originate | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 45007 | ||
New Creature: You wrote: "But thank you for helping me try to think through this. I would like to hear more of what you say on this topic as well." Are you sure about that? ;) The only thing I would like to add is that when Peter said that God shows no impartiality in Acts 10:34, he was speaking directly in reference to the Cornelius situation. Cornelius was a Gentile who became a Christian, and that was the "train wreck" to his previous understanding of what it meant to be a Christian. So, when Peter says this, he means that God is going to be calling people to Himself not only from the Jews, but also from the Gentiles. That is the impartiality of God spoken of here. --Joe! |
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213 | The Cross,Jesus and Mary are they Idols? | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 45590 | ||
"All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for REPROOF, for CORRECTION, for training in righteousness" --2 Timothy 3:16 It is not our place to condemn, but it is our place to use God's Word to proclaim His coming judgment and His condemnation of those who are not in Christ. --Joe! |
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214 | Can you give the places? | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 45613 | ||
Two excellent books on the subject are _Mormonism 101_ by Bill McKeever and _The Gospel According to Joseph Smith_ By Ethan Harris. Both treat the Book of Mormon and Mormonism itself from an evangelical perspective, and they go into the "history and archaeology" arguments as well. --Joe! |
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215 | Raven, do you want ALL the Law? | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 45679 | ||
You didn't answer my question. If Paul and James intended to write that the believer is to have nothing to do with any aspect of the law, why does he quote one of the Ten Commandments as a command to those who are followers of Jesus Christ in Ephesians 6:1-3? Why does James refer to the law as a guide for believers in James 1 and 2? Please fit the Scriptures I cited above into your interpretation of Galatians. If they don't fit, then your interpretation needs adjustment. --Joe! |
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216 | Raven, do you want ALL the Law? | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 45694 | ||
You wrote: "Children need to be taught the Law so that they will see that they are indeed sinners and turn to Christ. This is the Law's purpose." Please show me from Ephesians 6 where it indicates that Paul is talking to unregenerate children. Does Paul present the commandment from God to lead them to Christ? No, he repeats the promise that accompanies it in the Deaclogue. Obviously, Paul intends for the children to -- yes -- actually honor their fathers and mothers, which is possible with the indwelling Holy Spirit! There is nothing in his commands to family members in Ephesians 5 and 6 that suggests that he means anything else. --Joe! |
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217 | Raven, do you want ALL the Law? | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 45695 | ||
You wrote: "The law that James refers to is not the Mosaic Law (the 10 commandments), it is the law of Christ - love. James calls it the perfect law - the law of liberty" Let's take a look at the context of the "law of liberty": "But prove yourselves doers of the word, and not merely hearers who delude themselves. For if anyone is a hearer of the word and not a doer, he is like a man who looks at his natural face in a mirror; for once he has looked at himself and gone away, he has immediately forgotten what kind of person he was. But one who looks intently at the perfect law, the law of liberty, and abides by it, not having become a forgetful hearer but an effectual doer, this man will be blessed in what he does." --James 1:22-25 The "law of liberty" is equated here with the word of God (v. 22). Since the New Testament had not been completed, obviously the written word that a believer was to LOOK AT and ABIDE IN and DO was found in the Old Testament. Again, we will not fulfill the moral law of God perfectly, but we are enabled by the Holy Spirit to please God by following His moral commands. We are called here to DO something, and there is nothing that we can do to please God that is not already contained in the written moral code of the OT. Then we look at the following chapter: "If, however, you are fulfilling the royal law according to the Scripture, "YOU SHALL LOVE YOUR NEIGHBOR AS YOURSELF," you are doing well.' --James 2:8 That is Leviticus 19:18...the LAW. The Scripture being referred to here is right in the middle of the Torah. "But if you show partiality, you are committing sin and are convicted by the law as transgressors. For whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles in one point, he has become guilty of all. For He who said, "DO NOT COMMIT ADULTERY," also said, "DO NOT COMMIT MURDER." Now if you do not commit adultery, but do commit murder, you have become a transgressor of the law. So speak and so act as those who are to be judged by the law of liberty.' --James 2:9-12 Again, James equates the law of liberty with two of the Ten Commandments. He characterizes sin as a violation of God's law. How do you characterize sin? If there is no law (i.e. the moral will of God as shown in the Ten Commandments) for the Christian, how is it possible for us to sin? In other words, what are Christians sinning AGAINST when they sin? --Joe! |
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218 | Raven, do you want ALL the Law? | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 45697 | ||
You wrote: "So God has made a New Covenant and fulfills His righteous requirements in us through the Spirit instead of through external commandments." Then why are there so many external commandments in the New Testament? Look at all of the epistles and the things that the Christian is told to DO. Why even open the Bible, with all of its "external commandments" in BOTH testaments, if the Holy Spirit works apart from the written moral will of God? "Galatians demonstrates that we are no longer under the Mosaic covenant or the Mosaic Law." No, Galatians demonstrates that the Gentile was NEVER under the Mosaic Covenant. God made that covenant with the physical descendants of Jacob, and I was never under that yoke of slavery in the first place. Paul is not encouraging the Gentiles to keep from RETURNING to the Mosaic Covenant; he is charging them never to put themselves under it in the first place! See Romans 2 for a more thorough examination of the difference between the Jew and Gentile with reference to the Mosaic Covenant." Now then, please show me how we please God without obeying the moral aspects of the Law, to which God not only holds Jews, but Gentiles as well. You wrote: " Now, does the Law reflection the moral character of God. Certainly. It thereby reflects the sinner's fallen nature also. But the Jews could never keep the Law, could they? Neither can we. In fact, apart from Christ Himself, we cannot measure up to God's actual moral character as reflected in the sermon on the mount and 1 Cor 13." Agreed, but that does not mean that the moral law of God is not useful to the believer's sanctification. You wrote: "But under the New Covenant, God has put His Spirit in us and we walk by faith in Him, trusting Him to lead and guide us as Christ lives through us. This will cause us to fulfill the law of Christ - loving God with all our heart and our neighbor as ourselves." Loving God with all our heart: Deuteronomy 6:5 -- the LAW. Loving our neighbors as ourselves: Leviticus 19:18 -- the LAW. The Father established the moral aspects of the law for all generations, revealing it in creation (Romans 1:20), in our consciences (Romans 2:5) and in the moral commandments given to the nation of Israel. Christ, born under the law, in His life met all the requirements of the moral law of God for all those who believe. Christ by His death paid the penalty of sin, freeing us from the curse that results from not following the law ourselves (and what law is that referring to, since the system of sacrifices was never part of any covenant I had with Him?). And the Holy Spirit enables us to love the moral aspects of the law as David did (Psalm 119) and see it as the blueprint for the outworking of our faith in Christ. --Joe! |
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219 | Raven, do you want ALL the Law? | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 45724 | ||
Ludicrous? "I will ask the Father, and He will give you another Helper, that He may be with you forever; that is the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it does not see Him or know Him, but you know Him because He abides with you and will be in you." --John 14:16-17 "However, you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. But if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he does not belong to Him." --Romans 8:9 "But if the Spirit of Him who raised Jesus from the dead dwells in you, He who raised Christ Jesus from the dead will also give life to your mortal bodies through His Spirit who dwells in you." --Romans 8:11 "Do you not know that you are a temple of God and that the Spirit of God dwells in you?" --1 Corinthians 3:16 "Or do you not know that your body is a temple of the Holy Spirit who is in you, whom you have from God, and that you are not your own?" --1 Corinthians 6:19 "Guard, through the Holy Spirit who dwells in us, the treasure which has been entrusted to you." --2 Timothy 1:14 'Or do you think that the Scripture speaks to no purpose: "He jealously desires the Spirit which He has made to dwell in us"?' --James 4:5 "The one who keeps His commandments abides in Him, and He in him. We know by this that He abides in us, by the Spirit whom He has given us." --1 John 3:24 "By this we know that we abide in Him and He in us, because He has given us of His Spirit." --1 John 4:13 I am still looking for the "ludicrous" part. --Joe! |
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220 | Raven, do you want ALL the Law? | Bible general Archive 1 | Reformer Joe | 45844 | ||
You wrote: "Joe my friend saying that the almighty God dwells in someone literally is inacurate. It is Gods word which should dwell in us." It is true that God's word should dwell in us, but every one of those verses I cited before specifically states that God's SPIRIT dwells in the believer. If you think I am wrong in my interpretation, please show all of us how we can interpret a statement like "Guard, through the Holy Spirit who dwells in us, the treasure which has been entrusted to you" to mean anything else than -- well -- that the Holy Spirit dwells in us! You wrote: "If we say that the Holy Spirit literally dwells in us then we would have to say that it also allows us to sin. And thats just not possible." Why is it not possible? When ANYONE (believer or non-believer) sins, it is because God allows him to. Everything happens because God causes it to happen or allows it to happen. Otherwise, God is either not omniscient or not omnipotent. The Holy Spirit is a "He," by the way, not an "it." The fact that believers in Christ are indwelt by the Spirit does not mean that we are always controlled by the Spirit. You quoted Solomon in saying that nothing can contain God. Yes, the finite cannot contain the infinite. I did not say that believers completely CONTAIN God the Holy Spirit. That is a completely different (and unbiblical) assertion from the (biblical) assertion that He dwells in the believer. Incidentally, how do you explain Jesus, if the infinite and finite cannot co-exist in the same person? Jesus is infinite in his divine nature, and yet he took on a finite body. We are not both infinite and finite in two different senses like Jesus Christ, but that example does show how the finite (us) and the infinite (the Holy Spirit) can be united. And the believer is united to the Holy Spirit in such a way that He dwells in us. I quoted nine specific verses from our Lord, Paul, and John, which explicitly state that the Holy Spirit dwells in, abides in, or lives in the believer. You will have to do some pretty fancy footwork to present a coherent case against that. --Joe! |
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