Results 41 - 60 of 64
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
41 | How to follow, walk in the Spirit? | Gal 5:16 | Nevvvvine | 211430 | ||
Hi CDBJ:: We are a Vessle created by God, upon our salvation, we are (Filled) with God's Holy Spirit, from that moment on, we are (Indwelled) by the Holy Spirit. Where is it written, this filling (Can) or Does) take place, more than once? Just what would the process be, by which we can be (Unfilled), without being (Undwelled) at the same time? (EXAMPLE) If I have an empty glass, (representing the unregenerate person). Then I take a fluid, filling this glass, until full (representing the infilling of God's Holy Spirit). The glass now stands being (Indwelled) by this fluid, (representing the Believer). If I pour out even (One) drop of fluid, the glass in effect, is not full anymore. The questions then arise. 1) How much of the Holy Spirit is lost upon sinning? 2) Is the amount of loss, determined by the degree of Sin committed? If you (Sin, as a believer) you are in effect, putting yourself back under the Law, acknowledging that now being saved, (freed from sin) by the sacrifice of Jesus Christ, we are kept free by the keeping of the Law. 3) Does not Sinning, which can only be attributed to us, by the (Transgression) of the Law, on the part of the Believer, constitute (Falling Away)? We can't lose our salvation.. Jas. 2:1010) For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all. Gal. 3:1-3 1) O foolish Galatians, who hath bewitched you, that ye should not obey the truth, before whose eyes Jesus Christ hath been evidently set forth, crucified among you? 2) This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? 3) Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now made perfect by the flesh? Heb. 6:4-6 4) For it is impossible for those who were once enlightened, and have tasted of the heavenly gift, and were made partakers of the Holy Ghost, 5) And have tasted the good word of God, and the powers of the world to come, 6) ("If they shall fall away, to renew them again unto repentance"); ("seeing they crucify to themselves the Son of God afresh"), ("and put him to an open shame"). In Christ Alone Nevvvvine |
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42 | How to follow, walk in the Spirit? | Gal 5:16 | Nevvvvine | 211315 | ||
Hi Tim:: If we have been saved, Born Again, regenerated. This means we have been sealed with the Holy Spirit, is this the same as being filled? If the answer is yes, and we cannot lose our Salvation, which we cannot. Is it then possable for us to NOT walk in the Spirit? In Christ Nevvvvine |
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43 | ... | Eph 2:15 | Nevvvvine | 211314 | ||
Hi ovadyah: With your origional question, it appeared as though you were looking for, or asking help in attaining a better understanding, of the scripture in question. But, you have refuted everything everyone has said to you. It seems like you are either unable, or unwilling to see the (Spritual understanding of the explinations), which have been submitted to you. We are no longer in the flesh, but in the Spirit, therefore we are Dead to the Law. If we are effectivly dead to the Law, does that not mean (For us who believe) the LAW HAS been abolished? Col. 2:14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross; Phil. 3:9 And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith: If these 2 scriptures are not enough for you to understand, then the question arises. Are you saying scripture is contradicting scripture, or what Paul wrote was in error? In God's Love Nevvvvine |
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44 | ... | Eph 2:15 | Nevvvvine | 211275 | ||
Hi again ovadyah: Keep and Teach or Abolished/Annulled? Is that question being asked in relation to how, we as Christians should look at the Law? When you say Law do you mean the 10 commandments, or the whole law? Why does Paul say Christ abolished His Father's Law when Christ states: 1.)That's not why I came(Mt.5:17-19) 2.)We shouldn't loosen any commandment(Mt.5:17-19) 3.)We should keep the commandments(Mt.5:17-19) 4.)We should teach others to keep them (Mt.5:17-19) Paul says what he did, because he is talking to Spiritual Beings, not Fleshly Beings, if you have been Born Again. The abolishing of the Law only applys to believers, through Faith, we have fulfilled the Law through Christ. Rom. 7:4 4) Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God. Rom. 7:6 6) But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; (THAT WE SHOULD SERVE IN NEWNESS OF SPIRIT), and not in the oldness of the letter. Jer. 31:33 33) But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people. This is what has happened to us as believers. The plan, and the opperation to fulfill that plan of redemption was God's doing, not Man's. God, and God alone chose how he would accomplish this for us So if it says, in Eph. 2:15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; Then we have no other choice but to believe the inspired word of God. Gal. 4:4,5 4) But when the fulness of the time was come, (GOD sent forth his Son), made of a woman, made under the law, 5) (To redeem them that were under the law), that we might receive the adoption of sons. Gods Love Nevvvvine |
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45 | How does God judge and who? | Obad 1:16 | Nevvvvine | 211192 | ||
Hi again Bob: It would help in the future to post the name of who you are answering, to avoid confusion. I left off the refferance to Cor. 10:13 because you had already used it, if that was directed to me. Men in themselves do not have the ability to resist temptation, this only becomes true after salvation. God bless Nevvvvine |
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46 | How does God judge and who? | Obad 1:16 | Nevvvvine | 211191 | ||
Hi again Bob: It would help in the future to post the name of who you are answering, to avoid confusion. I left off the refferance to Cor. 10:13 because you had already used it, if that was directed to me. Men in themselves do not have the ability to resist temptation, this only becomes true after salvation. God bless Nevvvvine |
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47 | ... | Eph 2:15 | Nevvvvine | 211189 | ||
Hi ovadyah: The simplest answer to that question is. Jesus abolished in His flesh,the Law. (By fulfilling the Law.) So we who believe in Jesus as Savior, both Jew, and Gentile, in him we both become righteous, as though we have fulfilled the law ourselves. Thereby establishing peace with God in His flesh. As far as the Law is concerned. It still exists, in particular to those that want to live by the Law.(the Jews) But as for us, who are of the household of Faith, we have been set free from the curse of the Law in our lives. Galatians 3:10 10) For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them. Galatians 3:13 13) Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree: Jesus taught us: Matt. 22:36-40 36) Master, which is the great commandment in the law? 37) Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind. 38) This is the first and great commandment. 39) And the second is like unto it, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself. 40) On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets. Mark 12:30,31 30) And thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind, and with all thy strength: this is the first commandment. 31) And the second is like, namely this, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself. There is none other commandment greater than these. Luke 10:27,28 27) And he answering said, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy strength, and with all thy mind; and thy neighbour as thyself. 28) And he said unto him, Thou hast answered right: this do, and thou shalt live. If we keep the 1st.,and 2nd. commandments, we will keep all of them. For Love worketh no ill to our neighbour. In Jesus Love Nevvvvine |
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48 | How does God judge and who? | Obad 1:16 | Nevvvvine | 211184 | ||
Hi BOB, and JOHN:: It seems there is an answer to both of your positions. Bob you say: When he was tempted in every way that we are, he could not use one ounce of his deity to resist it or he would have an advantage over us in facing temptation. So his perfect life puts us to shame since we should have been able to resist as well. answer: Your infference, is mixed with apples, and oranges You use scripture that was to a person (Abram) before there was LAW, and then to a people under the law "were not". The Holy Spirit is the Unifying factor, between Jesus, and us. Giving to (both) from the POWER of God himself, the ability to overcome temptation, because we are in Jesus, Matt. 3:16 16) And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him: Act 1:8 8) But you shall receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you; and you shall be witnesses to Me in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the end of the earth.” John you say: Hi Bob, can you show us please just where in scripture is says that "we should have been able to resist" temptation, as you say? answer: We as unsaved (unregenerated) human beings, have no power in our lives to resist anything! So what you said to Bob is correct as far as that goes. Although there is scripture for us who "Do" believe. Gal. 5:16 16) This I say then, Walk in the Spirit, and ye shall not fulfil the lust of the flesh. In Love Nevvvvine |
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49 | Am I ignorant | 1 Cor 12:1 | Nevvvvine | 211178 | ||
Hi Jeff:: Thank you for your response. To clarify for you, what I was saying is that the teaching in Cor. would open to more people the receiving of said gifts. I am not refuting, that the gifts of the Spirit are clearly shown to be the work of God through the believer, After all they are called the Gifts of the Holy Spirit, they were not conjoured up by man to do something for God. 1 Cor.14:12,13 12) Even so ye, forasmuch as ye are zealous of spiritual gifts, seek that ye may excel to the edifying of the church. 13) Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret. So we see that we "can seek" to a greater gift, a deeper understanding of them. A differant way of saying it would be, there were, and are today, people that can receive the gifts of the spirit, by being taught that they are available to us, and that we can seek for the manifestation of them in our lives. This teaching will be a direct cause of the proliferation of thes gifts. About the lifespan, I was saying that there were people, that were receiving these Gifts, that were alot younger than the Apostles, meaning that they would be living into the 2nd. century, and teaching others that they also could, and should receive also. And so on, until the 21st.century. you say: "I don't find that God would give a gift to an individual and then he/she be in permanent possession and practice of that gift until his/her death." answer: Are there any other people documented in the bible besides the Apostles, (Timothy) that we can definativly say, they had the Gifts? Is there any documentation, refuting the posession of these Gifts until their deaths? Did Paul, John, Peter ever Stop being Apostles? you say: "I do see where particular gifts were used in particular events by individuals and then not mentioned again." answer: What particular event are you refering to? We see that Jesus healed a "Lunitic", but because there are not 5 more accounts of this same event taking place, does this mean that Jesus lost the power to proform this healing? No of course it doesn't, it just means that there does not need to be a redundancy of ocasions for us to know, and believe that these events took place more than one time, I guess it is one of those things we are taught, we are to take on FAITH. In summary: 1) Gifts are clearly of GOD. 2) There can be teaching of receiving thes Gifts. 3) Is permanent possession of thes Gifts possable. 4) Your particular event scripture. 5) Gifts only used inparticular events. God Bless Nevvvvine |
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50 | Am I ignorant | 1 Cor 12:1 | Nevvvvine | 211119 | ||
Hi John:: Why would the teaching on the Gifts of the Spirit have been written to the Corinthians? Which would have multiplied the amount people that were able to avail themselves of these gifts, and in many cases much younger than the Apostles. Thereby putting the possible end of said gifts into the 2nd. century, and so on with the same teaching from Cor. until we are in todays time sitting on the forum debating wether the Gifts of the Spitit are for today, because there are no scriptures that speak explicidly to this question which is what type of scripture it would have to be, not some vague belief of what something MIGHT be saying. To Quote a venerable poster on this forum if I may. Quote from Doc. "If we aren't told, then all we can do is speculate." That seems to be exactly the thing that the Cessationism perspective is all about. I will take the time to read all of the links Doc has posted, and you have so graciously recomended to Tim, with a completely open mind, as I am sure you would do, were you in my position (:-) In His Love Nevvvvine |
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51 | Am I ignorant | 1 Cor 12:1 | Nevvvvine | 211065 | ||
Hi lionheart:: To me as far as I am concerned if the gifts were to stop at the end of what has been called the Apostolic age ie, 1st. cenruty. Then there would logically be scripture to tell us in the 21st. century that we have no need to seek after the gifts of the spirit because they have ended. But as we can clearly see in scripture it does not say anything of the kind. What you and others are proposing is. Because it does not explicitally say that the gifts will end then they must have ended. So it is not what truth is in scripture anymore that counts. It is what is not in scripture that carries the weight of truth. Let me ask you if you will. This belief that you have were you taught it as doctrine. Or did God himself by his Holy Spirit open your eyes to the fact that His gifts to the church have ceased to exist. Does the (BODY) of Christ still exist then are we not to have the same vibrance as a body that existed in the 1st. century are we not to be a be a light to the world? 1 Cor.12:--13:9-10 So your saying the perfect has come and the gifts are done away with. Just what is the perfect? Sounds like a good example of a Proof Text to me except you have neglected to explain to me what your saying with these scriptures. I guess I am supposed to pull out of the scriptures you have used your understanding of them. You say: "we need to let The Word speek and it does." Are there other places where The Word speaks to this issue? To put to rest any worries that you might have. I always read in context. In Him Nevvvvine |
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52 | Am I ignorant | 1 Cor 12:1 | Nevvvvine | 211009 | ||
Hi Lionheart:: if everyone believes that the ("Gospel of Salvation") must be preached unto all the world then the end shall come then the gifts that were available to the 1st. century church must still be available to the 21st. century church simply on the grounds that there are still churches being set up even as we speak.So is there not still a need for all of the gifts? In His Love Nevvvvine |
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53 | Are old words proper for Scripture? | Bible general Archive 4 | Nevvvvine | 210705 | ||
Hi Azure:: Just for clarification, would this following statement fall into the catigory of speculation, when there isn't any difinative proof one way, or the other? Note the beginning of the statement (some think). Some think the music the prophet called for is that sort the Greeks call "harmony," which is the gravest and saddest, and settles the affections: In Peace Nevvvvine |
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54 | Two Natures or One? | Rom 6:6 | Nevvvvine | 210065 | ||
Hank:: Maybe you would be able to give me the reason for baptism, just what purpose does it serve in the christians life, if everyones opinion is that it is not for regeneration. Just why should a christian bother getting baptised today. Nevvvvine |
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55 | Two Natures or One? | Rom 6:6 | Nevvvvine | 209956 | ||
Hi BradK:: Thanks for the interest. It is true I do uphold baptismal regeneration, but I feel more comfortable saying Born Again. Because I do, I feel that this also answers questions 1, and 2 . But because you asked for an elaboration, the "washing of regeneration" spoken of in Tit. 3 to me says baptism. Have a Blessed day Your Brother in Christ Nevvvvine |
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56 | Two Natures or One? | Rom 6:6 | Nevvvvine | 209943 | ||
Hi Val:: Thank you for your welcome I'm glad you enjoy them, I enjoy discussing the things of the Lord. (you say) 1) "I tend to disagree with and that is at the point when one becomes "saved". 2) "Only God knows when that point is in a believer's life." 3) "Baptism is a reflection of that point" (answer) If I may, when one becomes "saved". and "Only God knows when that point is in a believer's life." I believe we can be witnesses to a persons salvation, because it is an outward sign that they believe. Rom. 10:9 That (if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus,) and (shalt believe in thine heart) that God hath raised him from the dead, (thou shalt be saved.) Now if you are going to point at the believing in the "heart" let me then put this forward. 1 Cor. 12:3 Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed: and that no man can say that Jesus is the Lord, but by the Holy Ghost. Baptism, is the part where everyone gets their tails in a knot;-( There are only two times "regeneration" is used in the bible. Mat. 19:28 and Tit. 3:5 (Not by works of righteousness which we have done,) (but according to his mercy he saved us,) (by the washing of regeneration,) and (renewing of the Holy Ghost;) Act. 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost. At this point the washing of regeneration sure sounds like baptism, "If it walks like a duck" I have looked, I cant find any scriptures for the doctrine of Regeneration. It may sound nice, but that doesn't quite fit my criteria for a doctrinal belief. The word "renewing" is only used two times as well, Tit. 3:5 above, and Rom 12:2 And be not conformed to this world: (but be ye transformed by the renewing of your mind,) (that ye may prove what is that good, and acceptable, and perfect, will of God.) So it appears we are washed, regenerated, and renewed all at the same time. What then is being (saved, regenerated, born again)? Is being (saved, Regenerated, born again) the same thing? When we say we are (saved) what are we saved from? When we say we are (saved) are we (regenerated, born again) at the same time? When we say we are (regenerated, born again) what are we (regenerated, born again) unto, or for? Are we (saved) form eternal damnation in the lake of fire? It doesn't matter if you keep believing what you do, and I do the same, neither one of us will lose our salvation because of these beliefs. But without any rancor between us because of our differing beliefs, we continue to have a meaningful discourse on the things of God, then we are keeping the Unity of the Spirit, as we have been told to do. It means one of us has been given more light than the other, and that person should not put a stumbling block before his brother. causing him to fall because of the liberty that one has. One believes one day is Holy, another believes all days are. Your Brother in Christ Blessings on You Nevvvvine |
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57 | Two Natures or One? | Rom 6:6 | Nevvvvine | 209939 | ||
Hi Tim This is the Part 2 so you will have to go down to read part 1 sorry Rom. 7:15 (For that which I do) (I allow not:) (for what I would,) (that do I not;) (but what I hate,) (that do I.) Rom. 7:24,25 O wretched man that I am! (who shall deliver me from the body of this death?) I thank God through Jesus Christ our Lord. (So then with the mind I myself serve the law of God;) (but with the flesh the law of sin.) Paul in this description is calling himself the wretched man, as the example for us in order for every man that call them selves Christian, to be able to understand the Grace of God, and the Power to be found in this Sacrifice of Jesus Christ, for us who believe. John 8:36 If the Son therefore shall make you free, (ye shall be free indeed.) 1 Cor. 6:12 (All things are lawful unto me,) (but all things are not expedient:) (all things are lawful for me,) (but I will not be brought under the power of any.) 1 Cor. 10:23 (All things are lawful for me,) (but all things are not expedient:) (all things are lawful for me,) (but all things edify not.) Eph. 2:1-6 (you say) Paul, in Galatians 5, Romans 6, and Romans 8, deals with our need to walk according to the Spirit so that we will not gratify the desires of the flesh. So, evidently, it is possible for a Christian to sin. (answer) Rom. 8:7 Because (the carnal mind is enmity against God:) (for it is not subject to the law of God,) neither indeed can be.) Gal. 2:20 I am crucified with Christ: (nevertheless I live;) (yet not I, but Christ liveth in me:) (and the life which I now live in the flesh) (I live by the faith of the Son of God,) who loved me, and gave himself for me. Gal. 5:24,25 And they that are Christ's (have crucified the flesh with the affections and lusts.) (If we live in the Spirit,) (let us also walk in the Spirit.) Rom. 6:11 Likewise (reckon ye also yourselves to be dead indeed unto sin,) (but alive unto God) through Jesus Christ our Lord. 1 Cor. 15:48,49 (As is the earthy, such are they also that are earthy:) and (as is the heavenly, such are they also that are heavenly.) And (as we have borne the image of the earthy,) (we shall also bear the image of the heavenly.) John 3:6 (That which is born of the flesh is flesh;) and (that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.) It is all done for us, we do not have to wait to die before we can gain this freedom, it has already been provided for us, we just have to acknowledge it now. I guess that is a lot to absorb for now. Your brother in Christ Nevvvvine |
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58 | Two Natures or One? | Rom 6:6 | Nevvvvine | 209938 | ||
Hi again Tim:: Thank you for the welcome I guess I could probably call this my Part-1 (you say) 1 John 3:9. This is the only verse in all of the Bible that seems to say that it is impossible for a Christian to sin. That fact alone makes it quite unusual. (answer) The fact it "IS" the only one, making it unique to the rest of the religious canon. That should make us ask the question all the more. Why is it here, what does it mean to us as christians, how does it fit with the rest of the teachings in the Bible? Instead we have automatically discounted it, based on our Doctrines, Dogmas, Traditions, Rituals. That kind of action on our part, would turn us into the equivalent of a 21st. Century Pharisee. (you say) Does it really mean what it appears to say? (answer) Well I'm here to tell you, "it sure does". (you say) Thus, it would appear that sin is a possibility for a Christian even as obedience is a possibility. (answer) John 5:24 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, (and shall not come into condemnation;) ( but is passed from death unto life.) Rom. 8:1 There is therefore now (no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus,) (who walk not after the flesh,) (but after the Spirit.) "Why?" you might ask. Rom. 5:13 (For until the law sin was in the world:) (but sin is not imputed when there is no law.) Rom. 6:2,11 God forbid. (How shall we, that are dead to sin,) (live any longer therein?) (Likewise reckon ye also yourselves to be dead indeed unto sin,) (but alive unto God through Jesus Christ our Lord.) Rom. 6:4 (Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death:) (that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father,) (even so "we" also should walk in newness of life.) The point you are failing to see is very simple. Upon the event of our baptism, our identifying with Christ by dying to the flesh, we are resurrected with Christ, this is the point of our regeneration, in newness of life. As spoken of in Rom. 6:4 This is the New birth, Born Again. Newness of life, New Creation, means just that, we have truly become a Peculiar People. We are in the flesh, (But we are dead to the Flesh) We are in the flesh, (But we are alive to the Spirit) This is not something we choose to do, this is something God has done for us, through the sacrifice of Jesus. Our flesh will still go through the motions of sin (Rom. 5:13 above) I have to split part 1 and make a part 2 Nevvvvine |
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59 | Two Natures or One? | Rom 6:6 | Nevvvvine | 209918 | ||
Hi Tim:: You have made these two statements, You seem to be very emphatic with your (No!) I did not want to muddy the water, more than it has already, so I haven loaded this post with a lot of questions, only the answer to yours. If you would like to have all of my understanding on this I would be more than happy to oblige. But at this point I felt you needed to see this first. "Does this mean that a Christian can no longer sin? No!" "No where does Scripture tell us that it is impossible for us to sin" 1 John 3:9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. God Bless Have a Good Day Nevvvvine |
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60 | Just a question | Bible general Archive 4 | Nevvvvine | 209868 | ||
Hank:: Thank you for your responce. Sorry for the mistake, I used "text proof" because that is what I read in a post form St John. Your example), "a favorite proof text used by promoters of baptismal regeneration is Acts 2:38" What makes the verse you have cited, out of context, in relation to the context, of the chapter in which it has been used? I'm not fully grasping the way in which this "proof text" thing really works. If a verse is taken out of context, it is to me just out of context, but calling it a "proof text" makes it sound more egregious. In the instance you use the term, is it because the text being used, is to define some sort of doctrinal belief? If this is what you are talking about, then wouldn't it be better to call it a Doctrinal Text. (you say) Genesis 6:14 provides a dramatic example of how misleading proof texting can be. Suppose we remove the verse from its natural context and interpret it soley on the basis of the command it contains. How about instead of doing that, we take the original verse you cited. "a favorite proof text used by promoters of baptismal regeneration is Acts 2:38" Are you saying, if we remove the verse from its natural context, and interpret it solely on the basis of the command it contains, in an attempt to use it in promoting the doctrine of baptismal regeneration, it then falls into the category of "proof text" is that correct? I am assuming, you are using the term baptismal regeneration, for another more well known term, being born again? (Questions) 1- If said verse is left exactly where it has always been, does it then leave the "proof text" penalty box? 2- If so then now being left in it's original context, what changes about it's meaning, understanding when it retains it's position, within the context of the whole chapter, that it can no longer be used, by a promoter of the doctrine of baptismal regeneration? 3- Is this verse ever put forward, to promote any other doctrinal belief? 4- Having then left the verse in question, in it's original contextual position, how is this verse now to be interpreted, in the context of the chapter in which it appears? I have heard it said, the Jews do not read "Isaiah 53" in the Synagogues. Does that constitute a "proof text" to them, or is it just something they Do Not want to see, acknowledge because if they did, they would then have to deal, with just what it did say? I agree whole heartedly with your following statements. If we do not handle the word of God righteously, by arguing over the doctrinal differences that divide us, rather than "honestly contending" to find the truth in God's word, regardless wether it fits our doctrine or not, then "WE" become the ones deceived. (you say) We can "prove" or "disprove" about any doctrinal position we wish if we handle God's word recklessly and abuse it to further our own suppositional errors. In his second letter to Timothy, Paul charged him to "be diligent to present yourself approved to God as a workman who does not need to be ashamed, accurately handling the word of truth" (2 Tim. 2:15). And indeed those who do not accurately handle the word of truth have every reason to be ashamed. God Bless Brother Nevvvvine |
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