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| Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
| Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
| 1 | Are consistent renderings possible? | 2 Cor 11:31 | Ray | 104100 | ||
| I have a question for Morant61 or any Greek student out there. I am considering 2 Cor 11:31 and Romans 9:5 where the Greek is translated "He who is" or "who is". 1) What are some other Scriptures with this rendering that we can look at to compare? 2) Can we be consistent in our renderings? 3) Can a consistent rendering help us to decide which manuscript to follow in a particular case? For instance, 2 Cor 11:31, NASB, does not include the word "Christ". 2 Cor 11:31, NASB, "The God and Father of the Lord Jesus, He who is blessed forever, knows that I am not lying." 2 Cor 11:31, NKJ, "The God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who is blessed forever, knows that I am not lying." Romans 9:5, NASB, "...who is over all,..." Romans 9:5, NKJ, "...who is over all,..." From the heart, Ray |
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| 2 | Are consistent renderings possible? | 2 Cor 11:31 | Morant61 | 104174 | ||
| Greetings Ray! I'll take a stab at your questions! :-) 2) Can we be consistent? I believe we can! My approach is simply this: When the demonstrative pronoun is used as the subject of a sentence, I translate it as 'He who'. When the demonstrative pronoun is used in a clause to modify the subject of the sentence, I translate it as 'who' or 'Who'. So, in the two instance above, I would go with the NIV and translate both of them as 'who', not 'He who'. 3) I don't think that the translation of 2 Cor. 11:31 really would impact which manuscript tradition should be used. The question is really a textual one. 1) As far as other examples, I would not know where to start. Basically, anywhere you find the words 'who is', you will find an example of this pattern. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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| 3 | Are consistent renderings possible? | 2 Cor 11:31 | Ray | 104178 | ||
| Hi Tim, Thank you for answering my question. As you know, I am no Greek scholar, but I would go along with your approach for the demonstrative pronouns. An example might be 2 Timothy 4:18 and 1 Timothy 6:16. The NASB uses a different approach and the NKJ is not consistent. I would render it "to whom" in both verses. I believe that we are in agreement there regarding "to whom". For 2 Corinthians 11:30 I would go with the NKJ. Thanks again. From the heart, Ray |
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| 4 | Are consistent renderings possible? | 2 Cor 11:31 | Morant61 | 104184 | ||
| Greetings Ray! Works for me! :-) I usually try to avoid translating a relative pronoun as though it were a personal pronoun. Except, like I said before, when it is used as the subject of the sentence. Then, I will translate it as 'He who'. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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| Questions and/or Subjects for 2 Cor 11:31 | Author | ||
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Ray | ||
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Morant61 | ||
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Ray | ||
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Morant61 |
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