Results 21 - 29 of 29
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: yokefellow Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | Is 'once saved always saved correct? | John 6:37 | yokefellow | 31492 | ||
Dear Tim, 1) Men will NEVER agree concerning WORKS until they understand fully that Paul in Eph. 2:9 is speaking of the "works" of the old law of Moses (Gal. 2:16; 3:10-12; 2 Tim. 1:9; Titus 3:5) by which "no man could be justified" (Gal. 2:16; 3:10-12). 2) James also talks about "WORKS" but not "works of merit" (where man "works" to hold God accountable or deserving of salvation) as 2 Tim. 1:9 declares. Note that James even declares in James 2:10, "For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all." No man could "keep perfectly" the law of Moses because Rom. 3:23 says, "For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God." 3) GOD'S PART IN MAN'S SALVATION PROCESS - Therefore, in order to save man, God had to design a faith "system" by which man could be reconciled back to God. He accomplished this "by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus." (Rom. 3:24). The shedding of Christ's blood "satisfied" God's requirement for man's sin (Rom. 3:24-31; 5:8-10). God provided the means through which man might be "forgiven" of his sins and be "reconciled" back to God (Rom. 5:10). Grace, then, is "God's part" in the reconcilation process (Eph. 2:8). 4) MAN'S PART IN GOD'S SALVATION PROCESS - Paul states in Romans 3:25-26 that God sent Jesus to be a "propitiation," which involves two ideas (1) satisfying the demands of the law, and (2) placating the wrath of God. No other sacrifice could accomplish "both" of these demands. Jesus died in our place (2 Cor. 5:21; John 1:29; 1 Thess. 5:9-10; Heb. 2:9; 1 Pet. 2:24; 1 John 2:2; 4:10. This propitiation is "through faith in his blood." We must believe (faith) that the blood of Jesus has the power to "wash away our sins" (Acts 22:16) when we "obey" the Gospel. When a person is scripturally baptized (immersed in water), he is "baptized into" the death of Christ. Since Jesus shed His blood in His death (Rom. 6:3-4), that blood is applied when one obeys the Gospel, when he is "born again" of water and the Spirit, and his sins are "washed away" by His blood. The power is NOT in the water, but in the BLOOD! That blood "continues" to wash away the sins of the children of God as they "continue" to "walk in the light" and "confess" their sins before God ( 1 John 1:7-9). Romans 3:27 - Here Paul is showing that all boasting or glorying is "excluded" by the nature of God's plan to redeem man through the sacrifice of Jesus. The apostle here points out that there are "two" kinds of laws that could justify. By a "law of works" a man could be justified, but only if he kept every part of the law PERFECTLY (James 2:10). This, of course, no man could do. Thus "the law of faith" is the ONLY MEANS by which anyone can be spared the punishment of sin, and this "law of faith" excludes ANY boasting on man's part. The "law of faith" is the Gospel or the "law of liberty" as James declares (James 1:25; 2:12). This "law of faith or liberty" is the Gospel or New Testament (Heb. 9:15-16) which teaches us that we MUST OBEY God's will (or testament in order to be saved - Matt. 7:21). This is "man's part" in his salvation ("saved through faith" - Eph. 2:8). Romans 3:28 - Law-keeping alone, which the Jews believed was all they needed, will not save anyone. We must have faith IN CHRIST and trust Him to save us, however, OBEDIENCE to the Gospel IS NOT EXCLUDED, as we have already observed. Martin Luther added the word "only" to this text, but the Holy Spirit did not inspire Paul to write "faith only" here nor "grace only" in Eph. 2:8. 5) James is talking about the same "kind" of works as Paul talks about in Eph. 2:10. The "works" that Paul talks about are "works of obedience" that "God hath before ordained (prepared) that we should walk in them." This is the same "kind" of "faith which worketh by love" (Gal. 5:6). This "love principle" motivates us as Christians to please God in the doing of His will. In order to demonstrate our love for God, we (his workmanship) have been "created in Christ Jesus unto GOOD WORKS (Emphasis mine), which God hath before ordained (prepared) that we should WALK IN THEM (Emphasis mine). Some of those "good works" are listed in James 1:27; 2:14-26). 6) I pray that you (and others who read this posts) can understand that Christians who are "in Christ Jesus" (Gal. 3:26-28) and who love Him should be engaging in "good works" that God has "ordained" (prepared) that Christians should do. NOT OUR WORKS - but GOD'S PREPARED WORKS - works of obedience - His commandments being part of those "good works" and "his commandments are not grievous." (hard to bear - 1 John 5:1-3). Paul even tells us in the letter to Titus that we as a "purchased people", should be "zealous of good works" (Titus 2:14). Mike |
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22 | Is 'once saved always saved correct? | John 6:37 | yokefellow | 31629 | ||
Dear Joe, All of this wasted "wrangling" because of a Bible answer that I gave Ka Lynn last Monday when she asked, "Is once saved always saved correct?" She only wanted an honest answer and I gave her one to the best of my ability according to the scriptures. She must have accepted the answer that I gave her from the scriptures since she didn't communicate anything else to me. If you had the "correct" answer all the time, why didn't you just go ahead and jump on in and give it to her? Why did you have to browbeat me like an ole horse? Yes, I will definitely "dodge" this argument like the others because there is absolutely nothing to argue about. As I've stated before, you can't "argue" what's IN the Bible (because God's Word never changes) - only that teaching that is NOT in the Bible. In my study this is what the Bible teaches. In your study, it teaches something else. This is fine because it's still a free country. I'm glad we're not under a dictatorship - you'd have already had me before a firing squad. Mike |
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23 | Is 'once saved always saved correct? | John 6:37 | yokefellow | 31642 | ||
Dear Joe, Maybe you should just set up your own Bible school and then you could teach the scriptures to everyone "correctly" as I (as well as others on this forum) have contradicted and grossly misinterpreted the scriptures too many times in your estimation. You stated in your posting, "The only way to hold to your position is to pick and choose the "works" passages and reject the "faith alone" ones, which equally as erroneous as holding to the "faith alone" passages and ignoring the ones which you mention in your posts." In my Bible (maybe yours reads differently), I do not see a "grace alone" nor a "faith alone" passage of scripture. The only way you can read that rendering is by "adding" to the scriptures which is (as you well know) forbidden. There are many preachers who teach the following: "You are saved by grace alone"; "There is no human part of salvation"; We do not contribute one whit to our salvation"; Our salvation arises entirely and ONLY from grace .... not by one act of duty, not by one deed of obedience, not by one righteous thing we do". "My salvation is based on grace alone ... I'm not saved because I believe or because I repented or because I was baptized ... there is only one "because of" in the plan of salvation"; "We are saved by grace plus NOTHING .... God does it all"! "We keep trying to place "conditions" on our receiving it (the free gift of grace)". "Grace is the ONLY thing that does save you". "Our works have nothing to do with our salvation". "The real motivation for obeying the Lord is NOT "in order to be saved" but rather "because we are saved". "I had absolutely nothing to do with my own salvation!" "Nobody has any right to preach anything other than the Gospel of pure grace". "We are saved by grace plus nothing". "You are saved by faith period". "There is nothing you can DO to be saved as God as done everything for your salvation". My question to you is: Are these preachers speaking the truth? If so: 1) Why is there not even one passage of Scripture that says we are saved by grace ALONE? Instead, the Bible teaches that we are saved by God and Christ (Tit. 1:3-4); the blood of Christ (1 Pet. 1:18-19); faith in Christ (Rom. 5:1-2); repentance (2 Cor. 7:10); baptism (1 Pet. 3:21); works (James 2:24); and hope (Rom. 8:24-25). 2) Why are not all men saved? According to Titus 2:11, the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation to all men. Yet, most men will not be saved according to Matt. 7:13-14. 3) Why did Peter say "save yourselves from this untoward generation" (Acts 2:40) and Paul say "work out your own salvation with fear and trembling" (Phil. 2:12)? 4) Why does the Bible teach us to believe, repent, confess, be baptized, and endure to the end in order to be saved (Rom. 10:9-10; Acts 2:38; Mark 13:13; Rev. 2:10)? The plain facts are (as I've stated over and over again in my postings) that the Bible teaches we are saved by "grace through faith" (Eph. 2:8-9; Rom. 5:1). Grace includes all that God does and has done for us (Romans Chapter 5; John 3:16-17) and many other passages. Faith includes all that man does and must do (Acts 2:37-38; 16:25-34). Note the keeper of the prison asked, "Sirs, what must I do to be saved?" What did Paul and Silas tell him? To do NOTHING? God has done everything for you already? Just accept Christ as your personal Savior? That's an EASY salvation! Most people enjoy and like that EASY salvation because they do not have to make ANY EFFORT at all! Just sit back and let the good times roll! Wait for the Lord to return and take you home to heaven! How convenient but unfortunately not true according to Bible teaching. Saving faith is not DEAD but LIVING and WORKING (Jam. 2:14-26; Rom. 1:5; 16:25; Gal. 5:6; Heb. 11). It is NOT negative, legalistic, or "guilt-trip" preaching to teach that there is something that man MUST DO in order to be saved and to CONTINUE to be saved - it is Bible teaching (Matt. 7:21; Acts 2:37-38; 9:6; 13:43; 22:16; Rom. 6:4; 2 Cor. 6:1; Gal. 2:21; 5:4; 2 Thess. 1:8; Heb. 5:8-9; 12:15; 1 John 1:7; Jude 4; Rev. 2:10). May the Lord bless you anyway! Mike |
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24 | Was Paul martyred? Or, did he live long | Acts 28:16 | yokefellow | 31062 | ||
Greetings, Marj, The following information is taken from Peloubet's Bible Dictionary, Pgs. 494-495: 1) Paul was imprisoned twice, the first imprisonment being recorded in Acts 28:16-31. This occurred A.D. 60-62. His "prison epistles" were written during this time - Philemon; Colossians; Ephesians; Philippians. According to the general opinion the apostle was liberated from imprisonment at the end of two years, having been acquitted by Nero A.D. 63, and left Rome. He spent some time in visits to Macedonia, Greece, Asia Minor and Spain, and during the latter part of this time wrote the letters to Timothy and Titus from Macedonia. After these were written he was apprehended again and sent to Rome. 2) The second imprisonment at Rome occurred, A.D. 66-67. The apostle appears now to have been treated not as an honorable state prisoner, but as a felon (2 Tim. 2:9); but he was allowed to write the second letter to Timothy, A.D. 67. For what remains we have the concurrent testimony of ecclesiastical antiquity that he was beheaded at Rome, by Nero, in the great persecutions of the Christians by that emperor, A.D. 67 or 68. 3) The following websites are provided for additional reference/information: 1) http://www.geocities.com/Athens/Ithaca/7730/Christian_martyrs/Paul.html 2) http://www.yfiles.com/disciples.html 3) http://www.direct.ca/trinity/disciples.html Mike |
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25 | The Forum -- Your Opinion? | Romans | yokefellow | 30681 | ||
Greetings, Charis, I can offer only a hearty "AMEN" to everything you stated in your analysis of the forum with one exception. I cannot agree with your statement, "I do not think that much true damage can be done here." The reason for my disagreement is that we are promoting God's divine Word on this forum. If we were promoting anything else besides God's Word on this forum, I would agree 100 percent that our answers would probably make very little difference or impact in peoples' lives and most would not pay much attention to the answers we give anyway. In the teaching and pomoting of God's Word, however, we must realize that people all over the world are looking at our answers. Their eternal destiny depends on our correct analysis of the holy scriptures (2 Tim. 2:15). This can only be accomplished by interpretating scripture with scripture. If our interpretation is incorrect and it leads a non-Christian (or Christian) down the wrong spiritual road (Prov. 14:12; 16:25), God will not only hold those individuals that are reading our postings accountable on judgment day but will hold us as teachers of the Word accountable as well. James 3:1 states, "Let not many of you become teachers, my brethren, knowing that as such we shall incur a stricter (greater condemnation - KJV) judgment." (NASB). Blessings to you in Christ, Mike |
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26 | The Forum -- Your Opinion? | Romans | yokefellow | 30771 | ||
Hank, I certainly realize that our eternal destiny is ultimately in the hands of our Creator. No question about that. However, if I (or anyone else) on this forum were to give an incorrect answer concerning a Bible question that someone might ask on this (or any other forum) and they didn't search the Bible to see if the answer was correct (Acts 17:11), it COULD effect their eternal destiny. Would you not agree? Especially if their Bible question had to do with their salvation. How many people who ask questions on this forum (or in any church setting - either Christian or non-Christian) actually "search the scriptures" to see whether or not the answer given them is true or not according to the scriptures? Many of them simply take whatever answer is given them without looking it up in the Bible to see if the answer given harmonizes with what the Bible says and teaches. This is the very reason there is a lot of false teaching going on in the church. People just don't take the time to search the scriptures for themselves - they simply take the word of someone else - either their pastor, preacher, elder, or whoever. This is why that we as teachers of the Word (whether on this forum, church setting, or home setting) need to soberly consider the eternal consequences of our teaching from the scriptures. Our spiritual influence is such that if people who come to the forum "think" that we are Bible scholars (and some of them do), should not we give them a "scholarly" scriptural answer from God's Word? I'm just simply saying that we need to be careful as to "how" we answer people's questions concerning God's Word. Our answers should not come from opinions, ideas, or philosophies but a "Thus Saith The Lord". Mike |
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27 | The Forum -- Your Opinion? | Romans | yokefellow | 31656 | ||
Dear Hank, Thank you for your honest and humble response! It's much appreciated and may the Lord bless you! I agree wholeheartly with your statement, "honest biblical questions should be accorded honest biblical answers". This is exactly what I've attempted to do (maybe miserably - yes - but honestly). Your statement concurs with Peter's statement that we as students of the Bible should "be ready always to give an answer to every man that asketh you a reason of the hope that is in you with meekness and fear (reverence)." I have tried to meet this requirement on this forum in all honesty, meekness, and reverence. Our agreement is also mutual concerning the last statement of your post, "With the denominational bias being what it is, there is little likelihood that we shall see eye to eye on all things biblical." Denominational bias is exactly why there are over 1,500 denominations in the world today. As you well know, Hank, there were no "denominations" in the Apostles day. There was just "one body" (Rom. 12:5; Eph. 4:4). That "one body" being the church over which He is its head and savior (Eph. 1:22-23; 5:23). He built His church (Matt. 16:18) and He purchased His church with His own blood (Acts 20:28). The Lord's church was established on the day of Pentecost 33 A.D. (Acts 2) and those that rendered obedience to what was said in Peter's sermon were "added to the church" by the Lord Himself (not man). Now, let me ask you this question: Why can't we as rational thinking men and women get rid of denominational teachings and just go back to the Bible for our spiritual teaching and instruction? What would be so wrong in seeking that method? Do you realize what that would produce? Just Christians (Acts 11:26). Not Baptists, Methodists, 7th Day Adventists, Assembly of God, Jehovah's Witnesses, Catholics, Mormons, Lutherans, etc., etc., but JUST CHRISTIANS! What do you believe the Lord would say to that idea? I believe He would say the same thing He said to His Father in John Chapter 17:20-23. Vs. 20 - "Neither pray I for these alone (the apostles), but for them also which shall believe on me through their (apostles) word; Vs. 21 - That they all may be ONE (emphasis mine); as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me." In the above reading, Christ concurs with Paul in 1 Cor. 1:10 when he says (by the Lord's authority), "that ye all speak the same thing, and that there be no divisions among you; but that ye be perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment." If the religious world could do what Christ and Paul stated, would there be any divisions among us? Would there be multiple teachings of men not authorized in the Bible? Would there be strife, fightings, wranglings over who was "right" or who was "wrong"? I believe we both know the answer to these questions. What is there that prevents this "oneness" from happening? For the love of Christ, His Word and His church, Mike |
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28 | Demons or Sin? | James 3:15 | yokefellow | 29942 | ||
Greetings, Kaman: Thank you for your questions: 1) "Do demons exist today and in what form." Demons and their ability to inhabit the bodies of men no longer exist. Their evil "influence" (along with Satan's influence), however, does still exist (John 8:44; Eph. 6:12; 1 John 3:8). Our Lord "bound" Satan in his own house or domain (Matt. 12:22-30), and the Gospel of Christ is the "chain" which restrains him and his servants or demons (Rev. 20:1-4). During the first century, those people who were seized by these agents of Satan were "powerless" to remove these demons. Only Christ and His disciples had the power to remove them (Mark 5:1-15; Luke 10:17). Today ALL men, through the help of the Lord, have the power to repel Satan's influences. The Lord met Satan in his own domain and triumphed over him (1 Cor. 15:54-58; 1 John 5:4;Heb. 2:14-15). Today, the devil's power over men is "limited" to deceit (Rev. 12:9; 20:3) and temptation (Matt. 4:1-11; James 1:13-15; 1 John 2:14-16) both of which may be resisted by the help of God and the sword of the Spirit (Matt. 4:1-13; 1 Cor. 10:13; Eph. 6:10-18). If we "resist" the devil, he will "flee" from us (James 4:7), because he is afraid of any one who wields the weapon of the Holy Spirit - the word of God (Heb. 4:12). 2) You stated, "Evil in the world comes from sin and not from demons." Evil originates in the heart of man (Matt. 15:18-19; Mark 7:20-23) when he is influenced by Satan (Eph. 2:2-3) and the “world” (James 4:1-4; 1 John 2:15-16) to transgress God’s law (1 John 3:4). Satan tempts man in three areas: (1) lust of the flesh; (2) lust of the eyes; (3) pride of life (1 John 2:16). He tempted Eve and Christ in the same three areas (Gen. 3:6; Matt. 4:1-11). Sin and death entered the world through Adam. The phrase “by one man” refers to the sin of Adam in the Garden of Eden (Gen. 2:17). Through this transgression by Adam against the law of God, sin and death entered into the world (1 Cor. 15:21-22). Paul points out in Romans 3:23 that “all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God.” All men will have to bear the “consequence” of Adam’s sin which is physical death (Romans 5:12). When man freely “chooses” to transgress God’s law, that man dies spiritually as well as physically (Romans 6:23). The “spiritual death” of each accountable individual is not because of Adam’s sin but because, “all have sinned” (Romans 3:23). It is due to the sin of each individual who is himself responsible for his own spiritual condition before God. The Bible makes it clear that man is responsible only for what he does or does not do (Isa. 59:2; Eze. 18:4; Rom. 6:23) and nowhere teaches that man is born with a “sinful nature” (Matt. 19:14; Heb. 12:9). All men are guilty of sin before God because they continue to “choose” succumb to evil influences (Satan and the world) and commit sin (Romans 3:23; Gal. 3:22). Mike |
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29 | AntiChrist | 1 John 2:22 | yokefellow | 29738 | ||
Dear Sue, Thank you for your question, "What are some basic characteristics of the AntiChrist?" According to the scriptures: 1) He is a liar - 1 John 2:22. 2) He is a deceiver - 2 John 7. 3) He is a denier that Jesus is the Christ - 1 John 2:22. 4) He is a denier of both the Father and the Son - 1 John 2:22. 5) He refuses to acknowledge that Christ has come in the flesh - 1 John 4:3; 2 John 7. Mike |
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