Results 1 - 20 of 185
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: swerv Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why is Church full of pagan beliefs ? | Not Specified | swerv | 145960 | ||
Why are paganized doctrines within the Church. Answer: Because the devil was wroth with the woman (church) and influenced man to corrupt the Truth of the Bible. Here is a list of the corrupted beliefs: eternal hell, 1st day worship, immortality of the soul, all food is now clean and good, and rapture/tribulation prophetic theory. Why does the Church not acknowledge these false doctines ? Because of pride and the devil is working his plan to deceive as many as possible before Christ returns for the dead and living in Christ. |
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2 | Eternal Hell ?? Immortality of soul ?? | Not Specified | swerv | 146042 | ||
Can someone explain why a God of love and mercy would send millions of lost souls to an eternal hell ? As well, please comment on why many people believe that the soul has immortality prior to it being given immortality at the ressurection ? | ||||||
3 | Sabbath is Saturday or not ?? | Not Specified | swerv | 146045 | ||
Is the Sabbath of the OT and NT on the 7th day or 1st day ? Also, is the 7th day Saturday. | ||||||
4 | OT LAW ?? | Not Specified | swerv | 150511 | ||
1) What is Gen. 26:5 refering to when it says Abraham obeyed ..... ?? 2) Why were the 10 commandments put inside the ark but the sacrificial laws were not ?? Merv |
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5 | Why two tablets ??? | Not Specified | swerv | 152442 | ||
Do you think God - Himself (Ex.31:18)- writing the 10 commandments on the (2) tablets has any correlation to the 10 commandments being summarized by Jesus into (2) broad commandments. The commandments written by God regarding our relationship to Him on 1 tablet and the commandments written by God regarding our relationship to our neighbours written on 1 tablet. The point here is the NT does not re-invent the law but instead repeats the moral law (10 comm.) of the OT. Is.42:21 clearly says Christ would magnify the law. And Ps. 40:7,8 says Jesus delights to do the will of God and thy law is within Jesus's heart. That is why He led a Perfect life on earth and therefore died a sinless man and paying our debt. The law written on our hearts as part of the NT covenant is the same as the law written on Jesus's heart. This is the 10 commandments. The same moral law Abraham was keeping (Gen. 26:5) prior to any written law at Sinai. |
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6 | Why did God test Adam and Eve ? | Not Specified | swerv | 153382 | ||
Why did God give Adam and Eve the instruction not to eat from the "tree of knowledge" ? Was it not for a test of obedience ? If so, then why do so many Christians argue so stongly that we are no longer reuired to be obedient to God's instuctions ? | ||||||
7 | Why 10 Commandments put inside the Ark ? | Not Specified | swerv | 153624 | ||
Why were the two tablets of the 10 Commandments placed inside the ark of the covenant, but the law written by Moses was placed on the side of the ark of the covenant ? | ||||||
8 | Noah took 7 clean but only 2 unclean ? | Not Specified | swerv | 153625 | ||
Why did God instruct Noah to take 7 of every clean animal into the ark but only take 2 of every unclean animal ? | ||||||
9 | What was changed by the "little horn" ? | Not Specified | swerv | 153626 | ||
What times and law were to be changed by the "little horn" ? | ||||||
10 | Was Sabbath tested prior to Sinai. | Not Specified | swerv | 155091 | ||
According to Exodus were the people of God tested on obedience to the Sabbath prior to them reaching Mount Sinai and if so, does that not mean that the Sabbath was already a law prior to God giving the 10 commandments at Sinai. | ||||||
11 | Why is Church full of pagan beliefs ? | Bible general Archive 2 | swerv | 145963 | ||
Why are paganized doctrines within the Church. Answer: Because the devil was wroth with the woman (church) and influenced man to corrupt the Truth of the Bible. Here is a list of the corrupted beliefs: eternal hell, 1st day worship, immortality of the soul, all food is now clean and good, and rapture/tribulation prophetic theory. Why does the Church not acknowledge these false doctines ? Because of pride and the devil is working his plan to deceive as many as possible before Christ returns for the dead and living in Christ. |
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12 | Hank - Doctrine from God or Man ? | Bible general Archive 2 | swerv | 145962 | ||
Hank: This is in reponse to your note regarding my statements on paganized Christianity. I am aware that this is a touchy subject but I would first say that I grew up in a Free Methodist Church and attended a Methodist college. Many of my relatives are Baptist. I respect the opinions of all but in the case of false doctrine I think people need to determine for themself if Truth is being taught within our Chruches. I have been studying these controversial issues and I believe the scriptures are clear about the doctrines I said were altered by man. |
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13 | Hank - Diet ??? | Bible general Archive 2 | swerv | 145966 | ||
Hank - Diet : Math. 15, Acts 10, Rom. 14 -- all are examples of misrepresenting scripture to justify a doctrine that all food is now clean and God's instructions to Noah are of no effect anymore. Somehow as Christians we have developed a better digestive system which will allow us to eat those unclean food and not suffer from there ill affects. Hank - can you provide me one verse in the NT that clearly changes God's original instructions about clean/unclean foods. | ||||||
14 | Hank - Doctrine from God or Man ? | Bible general Archive 2 | swerv | 145967 | ||
Hank - prophecy. Do you understand Daniel 9:27 is talking about Christ or antichrist. If Christ then the tribulation/rapture theory (Left Behind Series)would be a false doctrine. I believe the "he" is Christ in which fulfills the final (70th week) of Daniel 9 - the 70 week prophecy from God. Also, with Daniel 9:27 talking about Christ it also further supports that the "sacrifice and offerings" were taken away at the cross and not the 10 commandments which means the Sabbath (7th day - Saturday) is the day God made Holy in the very beginning before sin existed and which God expects us to follow out of obedience and love for Him. The "sacrifices and offerings" were a shaddow of things to come but the Sabbath was created by God prior to any fallen state of man. The Sabbath was apart of the perfect creation of God and was made for man as the NT tells us. Look forward to your response - Hank |
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15 | Hank - Diet ??? | Bible general Archive 2 | swerv | 145978 | ||
Steve: Thanks for the response. Use of Mark 7 is the same as my use of Math.15. In both cases Jesus is questioned on the eating "bread" with unwashed hands. This goes against their tradition. But the context of the illustration does not conclude that all foods are now clean and that unclean foods are now "ok" to eat because what goes into your stomach is expelled. Mathew 15:20 - clears up the issue: Jesus very clearly states that the things that come out of the mouth/heart are what defiles a man NOT eating with unwashed hands. But make no mistake that Jesus is talking about food (bread) that was eaten with UNWASHED hands which the scribes/pharisees accused them of been unclean. The scribes/pharisees were not accusing the disciples of eating unclean food such as pork because they obviously would have been following the guidelines that God set out for man in the days of Noah. These guidelines are still relevant to use today - God wants us to treat our bodies as Holy (Temple of God). Just as Daniel did not want to eat King Nebuchadnezzar's food and defile himself, we should have the same attitude toward our bodies. We are ALL created in the image of God: Why do we think that ever since the NT we are somehow immune from being defiled by the foods God/Jesus condemned in the OT. Isaiah 65:4 - clearly put eating swines flesh as abominations against God. We humble ourselves and accept God does instruct us to obey his commands and guidlines for a healthy a | ||||||
16 | Hank - Doctrine from God or Man ? | Bible general Archive 2 | swerv | 145980 | ||
Child of light 777 - Thank your for your resonse and crediting me with zeal. But I have a question to you as to why you consider my statements as irrational. If I was on this forum 2 years ago I would have been asking questions about why the "Church" believes in 1st day worship or why the "Church" believes in the rapture theory and I can only assume I would receive many positive responses confirming the common beliefs since I would not be questioning something that goes against the mainstream belief. I have struggled with these issues over the past few years and actually set out two years ago to reiforce my belief system. Unfortunately, when you take a hard look at the scriptural background for these doctrines you will find that there are problems with the interpretations. One of the best examples is Daniel 9:27. Most of the Christian community believes the "he" refers to the antichrist when in fact the clear context is in regards to Christ and the final week of the 70 week prophecy of Daniel 9. The rapture/tribulation theory (widely promoted by the "Left Behind series") is supported by this misinterpreted text. I look forward to your comments. Merv |
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17 | Hank - Diet ??? | Bible general Archive 2 | swerv | 146005 | ||
Thanks Steve, but I have a question as to who has misconstrued the text. I believe you agree that Math. 15 and Mark 7 are referring to the same event. You did not deal with the Math. 15:20 where Jesus is quoted as saying "but to eat with unwashed hands does not defile a man". How much more clear and concise does Jesus have to be for us to not understand the context of Math.15 and Mark 7. Again, I will repeat the issue was about the "food" being unclean due to not washing. It is absolutely not talking about Jesus cleansing all foods. Did Jesus not say He came to do the will of His Father and also He (Jesus) kept His fathers commandments. For Jesus to be contradicting the OT scripture on clean and unclean foods would be in direct diobedience to His Father. It would be like Jesus saying adultery was ok now but that is not the case instead He came to magnify (Is. 42:21) the law. Your reference to Mark 7:17-20 "all food are declared clean" is taken out of context. Mark 7:19 says that because food (unclean due to unwashing) enters the stomach and not the heart - the stomach now purifies the food and it is eliminated. So Jesus is saying that food can be eaten even though it has been touched by unwashed hands. I believe Jesus is using this example to not only talk about our heart but also to show that gentiles would soon be given the gospel. These cleansing ceremonies had alot to do with the Jews considering themselves unclean if having contact with gentiles and Jesus was subtlely bringing this to light. So finally, Steve I respect this discussion and will only say that I had the say position as you until I looked deeper into the true meaning and context of these passages. Peter's vision is another scripture many people "miscontrue" to justify the cleanliness of "all" food now. PS. One last point is you said in your closing comments that Mark made no qualifying statement. I do not think we have to look for anything from Mark when the context is clear and we have a direct statement and conclusion made by Jesus. (Math. 15:20) Look forward to your comments, Merv |
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18 | Hank - Diet ??? | Bible general Archive 2 | swerv | 146007 | ||
Tim Moran: Thanks for the feedback ! Please look at my most recent note I gave Steve on my belief of Math:15. Regarding Peter's vision - do you not find it strange that Peter's after having been one of the closest disciples to Jesus and taught by Him during His ministry - Peter still held to the diet of God. Also, nowhere does it say Peter ate the unlclean creepy things. Instead, Peter comes down off the roof and ponders the vision because he did not understand it. Not until he is at Cornelius's house that Peter reveals the understanding of the vision which was only that God has shown him that gentiles were not longer to be considered unclean. Peter repeats his experience when he was in Jerusalem in Acts 11. Nowhere do we see Peter or anyone else give the interpretation of the dream or even a dual meaning of the dream that somehow God was saying tp Peter that God has cleansed all food. Instead, the context and discussion by Peter explains that God had to use the unclean food vision to make his point because God knew Peter would not eat the unclean food because God had commanded man not to eat it. That is obviously why Peter did not immediately understand the vision. It was not until he was confronted to go to Cornelius house that he began to understand. I will comment on the other questions you had shorty. God bless, Merv |
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19 | Hank - Diet ??? | Bible general Archive 2 | swerv | 146023 | ||
Steve: Ok the golves are coming off now - just kidding. I appreciate the comments, this is how we both grow in knowledge and confidence in what we believe scriptural truth is. This truth must come from God since He is Truth without imperfection or contradiction. A few points on your last note: 1) Jesus is the one who added Math. 15:20 by inspiration to the writer. I fully agree with you that Jesus is relating back to the original question AND that question that the scribes were raising is the context of the entire passage of Math. 15:1-20. Ok so you want confirmation that the entire context of the text is in relation to uncleanliness by unwashed hands. I will stick with Math. 15. After verse 2 he condems the pharisees and the next verse to talk about food is vs. 11 in which He says "not what goes into the mouth but what comes out defiles a man". So you want me to believe that Jesus went from - the context of the pharisees judging the disciples for not washing their hands therefore defiling the food they were about to eat - to now Jesus in vs. 11 saying the "food" that now goes into the mouth encompases every kind of clean and unclean piece of meat. This is just blatent "adding to text" which you accused me of. I believe you are Peter's vision is an exact example of this - where man adds that God cleansed all food but the only interpretation Peter gives for his vision is that all man (gentiles) are clean and not to be called unclean. Another IMPORTANT point is that Peter is the one one in Math. 15 who asks Jesus to explain the parable (vs.15). So Steve explain to me how in the world Peter after being told by Jesus in Math. 15 (according to your view) that all meats are now clean and good to eat - Peter later after Jesus is resurected that this same God/Jesus tells Peter in the vision on his roof to eat the unclean animals but Peter refuses and no record shows that he did even though God ask three times. Does this not appear to be a huge contradiction to your overall view of God CHANGING His knowlegde of what is good for us to eat and what is not. 2) Regarding Mark 7:19 - sorry I used the word cleansed - it says "thus purifying all foods". Ok I do not know exactly where you were going with this point but I will give you my thoughts here. Prior to the "food" entering the body it was "considered" unclean by the pharisees because the disciples did not wash their hands. Note: the "food" was told to be bread. But anyway I strongly believe that if the food was a kind of meat then it would have been a "clean" piece of meat like lamb since the disciples knew the law of God regarding what not to eat so that they do not defile their body (the temple of God). So when that unclean piece of food (due to unwashed hands) enters the body it is purified by the stomach. So the few germs or whatever that made it unclean by the dirty hands would be killed by the wonderful system God made for us. I do not think Jesus is telling us to be unclean people since in the OT he clearly set standards for cleanliness for the OT Israel people. But Jesus is definetely not condonning eating swine (Isaiah 65:4) God is UNCHANGING !!!! So I do believe the text says that the food will be purified by the stomach. That is exactly what it says. Look forward to more discussions, see some of my other notes on other controversial issues, Merv |
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20 | Hank - Diet ??? | Bible general Archive 2 | swerv | 146026 | ||
Tim: To continue with Acts 10. Yes God is saying do not call meat unclean which I have said is clean. I agree. But what was the result. Did Peter actually eat the food - even after God repeating three times. (no) Does Peter immediately understand the vision - no. Why ? Peter cannot understand the meaning since it did not make sense to him !!! God has told man what is clean and unclean in the OT and now God is contradicting himself. - No of course not - God is using this to get the message through to Peter that gentiles who were considered unclean were now clean. Even when Peter repeats the experience in Jerusalem to the discipes he gives one single interpretation - which was - gentiles are no longer to be called unclean and the gospel is to be preached to them. Not anywhere does Peter make any statement saying all meats are now clean. To support this look at Math. 15 and Mark 7 where Peter questions Jesus to give the interpretation of the parable. If Jesus had (as many want to beleive) declared all meats clean now then why, many yaers later, after Jesus resurected and Peter learning from Him - why does Peter question God on the roof about eating the unclean meats ??? Now Rom. 14 - this text is again a misrepresentation of context. The meat discussed is regarding meat esteemed "unclean" because of being offered to idols. The disciples clearly taught at the Jerusalem council that the gentiles were to abstain from things offered to idols. Some took it so far that they became vegetarians. See 1 Cor. 8. Therefore these verses are used to support eating anything when God clearly teaches we must follow His guidlines of what is clean and unclean. Look forward to your response, Merv |
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