Results 81 - 100 of 114
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: reformedreader Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
81 | Salvation comes by asking for it. | John 3:3 | reformedreader | 3078 | ||
Chucky1146, What if you can't ask for salvation? Sam Hughey |
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82 | Protestantism challenged? | Matt 18:17 | reformedreader | 3065 | ||
JMR, How does Matthew 18:17 challenge Protestantism? Sam Hughey |
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83 | double predestination con | Rom 5:12 | reformedreader | 3047 | ||
CHESTYFIRE, Actually, the term "double-predestination" is more mistunderstood than understood. For the most part it refers to God predetermining who would go to heaven and who would go to hell. The "double" take on this is that God intentionally purposed some men to spend eternity in hell. As a Calvinist, I do not accept double-predestination as it has been erroneously taught by other Calvinists. They are wrong and I have stated so many times. Romans 5:12 clearly states that "ALL" men have sinned and have acquired the death penalty for Adam's likeness. We are all predestined to spend eternity in hell because of the fall unless we are saved by God's grace before our physical death. I do, however, believe that God elected a chosen race before the foundation of the world who would be called to receive salvation in the process of human time and history who would be shown His mercy and grace while not calling others. This does not negate their deserving hell anymore or less than those who are not called. All men are guilty and have sinned and fail to glorify God. All men are deserving eternal punishment and it is only by God's grace that any are saved. |
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84 | What does "world" mean? | John 17:11 | reformedreader | 3040 | ||
Thanks Mark and please don't take my response the wrong way for I surely do not intend for it to be taken but with the utmost of respect and courtesy. I still don't see how the word didn't change meaning. It either retains the same meaning (referring to that of order as opposed to chaos) or it doesn't. If it doesn't, then it surely has changed. Now, you say the meaning did not change but the meaning you gave was "referring to that of order as opposed to chaos" and not "general" to "particular". The problem I see with this is the term "general" is so vague it can mean just about anything we want it to mean and the term "particular" was not followed with anything that is "particular" so it also leaves us with a vague and ambiguous meaning, which can also be whatever we want it to be in the absence of any specificity. I think John was very specific with what he wrote in 10:11; 27,28. I realize the word "kosmos" is used to refer to the created universe and as part of the created universe it "can" refer to mankind. However, that does not conclude that it "must" and most definitely refers to "all" mankind without exception. That is not general, that is very specific or I guess particular as you are using the term. This would completely disagree with what John states in the verses I quoted and it would contradict what John states if the word "kosmos" must be forced in John 3:16 to refer to "all" humans instead of just mankind, meaning some but not all. John does not say that Christ died for "all" mankind specifically or particularly. John says Christ died for His sheep and since "not all" humans are Christ’s sheep, then Christ obviously did not die for all humans unless something has changed the meaning of sheep. Now, we could say that all humans were/are Christ’s sheep (without any scriptural warrant) but at sometime in their lives they chose to become goats (also without any scriptural warrant). So, I still fail to see how the word "kosmos" changed from what you stated originally to what you stated in your response. What is it in John 3:16 that would lead anyone reading it to conclude that the term "kosmos" can only refer to all humans and still not contradict what John states in 10:11;27,28? Sam Hughey |
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85 | do churches need to be founded by an apo | 2 Timothy | reformedreader | 3023 | ||
bro bob, In reference to "what fellowhsip does light have with darkness", I would ask if you believe light refers to those who are the redeemed of the Lord and dark refers to those who are not. If you believe this (and I certainly hope you do), then the comparison is intimate fellowship believers have with unbelievers to the point believers are influenced by unbelievers into thinking and acting like unbelievers. Scripture nowhere forbids Christians from having fellowship with other Christians except in the case Paul mentions in the Corinthian church. If one thinks they should be exhibiting the actions of the Apostles, then I would also demand them to raise the dead since the Apostle did that also. Have you done this? JohnnyRay49423 is correct in placing our emphases on Jesus instead of ourselves. Signs and Wonders we do (or fake doing) are not the gospel and nowhere did the Apostles teach such. Sam Hughey |
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86 | I CAME TO FULFILL THE LAW | Matt 5:17 | reformedreader | 2991 | ||
PYLE, I really tried to stay away from this one, but I just couldn't do it. Your question is answered in the verse you quoted. Christ clearly and unambiguously stated that His purpose for coming was "NOT" to bring an end to the law or the Prophets. Abolish and fulfill do not mean the same thing. The term "age of grace" is not a biblical term for grace has existed since before the foundation of the world. Law has also existed since eternity past. Both are the essence and utmost characteristics of God Himself. There has never been a time on earth where both Law and Grace have not existed. The term "law" does not always refer to the Law of Moses and the Law of Moses does not always refer to "only" the ceremonial or Levitical portions of that law. To say that Christ did not come to abolish the law, but then say Christ abolished the law is a contradiction and does not honor what our Lord truly stated. Our Lord taught throughout the Gospels directly from the Law of Moses. It was the Pharisaical distortions of the law that Christ condemned and not the law itself. Sam Hughey |
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87 | What does "world" mean? | John 17:11 | reformedreader | 2987 | ||
Thanks Mark, I would, if you don't mind, like a further explanation as to how the term "kosmos" (referring to that of order as opposed to chaos) suddenly changes meaning and refers to human beings in John 3:16. Also, if, as you say, Christ died for mankind in general, does that mean "not specifically"? John 10:11 says Jesus laid down His life for the sheep. If that is true, then mankind in general would be His sheep. 10:27 says Christ's sheep hear His voice and they follow Him. This obviously refers to salvation since verse 28 says Christ gives those for whom He died eternal life. If then, Jesus died for all mankind, and all mankind are His sheep, then all mankind hear His voice and follow Him. Is that true of all mankind? And if so, why are some of mankind in hell? Sam Hughey |
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88 | Jesus at God's Right Hand. | Mark 16:19 | reformedreader | 2981 | ||
bcbloyd, I think you are right on the money, so to speak. As others have and will point out though, God does not have hands since He is a Spirit. The Bible often uses metaphorical language when describing God. God does this so we may better understand the impact and force of His words in our lives. Sam Hughey |
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89 | Can a deacon drink wine with dinner? | 1 Tim 3:3 | reformedreader | 2979 | ||
rwash, Thanks for responding but I think somehting has been missed in our communication. I merely presented what 1 Timothy 3:3 correctly states about the qualification for a Deacon and the consumption of wine. I also stated that churches have no authority from God to create standards not already created in Holy Scripture. I don't understand your response about a contradiction between what Jesus taught and what God wanted for His people. Perhaps you could explain that and also what you meant by "Grace supplanted(?) work as the answer to finding favor with God." Thanks, Sam Hughey |
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90 | Stars do cease to exist...Isa 40:26? | Is 40:26 | reformedreader | 2974 | ||
userdoe211, How do you know Isaiah is talking about literal stars in the universe? Isaiah, and most of the Old Testament, uses metaphorical language. Psalms 84:11 says God is a "sun", Malachi 4:2 says the "sun of righteousness" will rise with healing in its wings. Surely the word "sun" is used literally but it is also surely used in a symbolic or metaphorical sense. What in Isa. 40:26 forces us to understand it in a literal sense only? Sam Hughey |
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91 | What does "world" mean? | John 17:11 | reformedreader | 2963 | ||
HeirofGod, What does the term "world" mean in John 15:19 and 17:11-16 and how/why is it different from the term "world" in John 3:16? Sam Hughey |
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92 | Can a deacon drink wine with dinner? | 1 Tim 3:3 | reformedreader | 2961 | ||
rwash, The qualifications for a Deacon in 1 Tim. 3:3 do not forbid him from drinking wine, it only disqualifies him if he is an abuser (addicted) to wine. "When" one has a glass of wine I think to be irrelavent. "Why" one desires a glass of wine I think to be very relavent. I would also think that any church who raises its standards above that of the clear and unambiguous testimony of Holy Scripture has more with which to be concerned than a Deacon who has an occassional glass of wine. Keeping the law is not the same as re-creating the law, which is what the Pharisees did and for what Christ condemned them. Sam Hughey |
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93 | Easter Bunnies...or Risen Lord? | John 11:25 | reformedreader | 2952 | ||
Excellent Chris, Sam Hughey |
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94 | Jesus took all the world's sins on Him? | 1 John 2:2 | reformedreader | 2949 | ||
petra, Would you explain "kessu" for the sake of those who do not know so responding might be made easier? Sam Hughey |
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95 | Aren't pictures wrong? | Acts 17:29 | reformedreader | 2948 | ||
P-J, What it says it not to think that the Divine Nature is like gold or silver or stone, etc. It does not forbid us from having pictures or ornaments made of gold, silver or stone. The command is to not compare things made by man with the one who made man. However, I think we are committing sin should we worship, as God or in the place of God, these images which would violate the 1st and 2nd commandments. The 1st and 2nd commandments forbid our creating images for the purpose of worship. Sam Hughey |
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96 | Greek has no "first day" in its text? | Luke 24:1 | reformedreader | 2943 | ||
Greek uses the word "mia" which refers to first. Translating Greek is not as simple as making it a word for word equivalent with the English language. Words in one language do not always equal what is used or how it is used in another's language. Mia refers to the "first" of the week. Most of the manuscripts used for translation also use the term "sabbaton" which means "Sabbath", which also refers to the first day of the week. So, it is translated as "on the Sabbath, the first day of the week". I would also like to hear from others who have better Greek knowledge. Sam Hughey |
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97 | verse referring to grace ,stone | Zech 4:7 | reformedreader | 2933 | ||
rain, I agree with blue that "mountain" refers to mountainous obstacles and that they can be overcome by faith in Christ. I think the term "top stone" (NASB) refers to Christ as both the corner stone (first to be laid) and top (cap) stone (last to be laid) which shows Him to be the ALPHA AND OMEGA of our faith in overcoming seemingly mountainous obstacles. Verse 9 seems to explain this by using the terms "foundation" and "finish". Sam Hughey |
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98 | How did Jer. do this? | Jer 25:15 | reformedreader | 2921 | ||
melancthon, Nice namesake. Do you read much of Phillip's works? I believe several possibilities exist. One that is the most plausable to me is that Jeremiah did not literally go to each national geographical location for that was not necessary, even though he might have gone to some. The word "nations" does not always refer to a geographical location but almost always refers to people. As the nations (people) were scattered and traveled and held together in bondage, it would have been easy to preach to a large number of people groups, thus allowing them to repeat Jeremiah's words to other people groups just as Nehemiah did not need to speak to each and every individual Israelite for them to know the command to rebuild a temple. Israel is both a nation and a peoples. I look forward to hearing other views. Sam Hughey |
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99 | Fellowship? Am I in or out? | 1 John 1:9 | reformedreader | 2916 | ||
Lifer, Please don't be troubled with asking anything. Afterall, that is why we are here. The consequences for Christians who are suffering from an unhappy fellowship with God is unhappiness, weak faith, easily tempted into surrendering to sin, doubting their salvation and even leads to not believing God. If this persists, it can lead to disastrous results in both your Christian life and others who are both directly and indirectly influenced by you. Look at the "prodigal son" for example. He did not have the proper fellowship with his father which caused him to be envious and greedy (wanting his inheritence before its time). He wallowed in the mud with pigs (lowest form of life for Jews), yet his relationship with his father never changed. Your standing with God, if you are a believer, is certain. Your relationship has not been dissolved and never will be. Christ has stated in John 6:39 that the will of the Father is that of all whom the Father has given Him (Christ), He (Christ) will lose "NONE". Both the Father and the Son were and are fully aware of the sins we will commit in our future but our salvation is certain and not even the gates of hell can prevail against that truth. I think the terms "in" and "out" of fellowhsip are inaccurate and abused by many. It is another term "Bible-Believing" Christians like to use that is not even used in the Bible. I think the Bible refers to the "joy" of our fellowship being there or not as with David when he finally acknowledged his sins concerning Bathsheba and her husband. David suffered much, such as the loss of his child with Bathsheba and his reign as King would always be filled with violence. I cannot say what God will or will not do in any given situation. But I do know that God will allow us to wallow in the mud with pigs until we come to our senses. It can be very painful and we might lose much in the process, but our relationship will never, never be lost. Sam Hughey |
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100 | True...but what about 1 John 1:9? | 1 John 1:9 | reformedreader | 2904 | ||
Lifer, Yes, our salvation is complete because of the complete work of Christ. He has given us complete and utter redemption, justification, sanctification and reconciliation (forgiveness). If it is complete, then what further acts of Christ do we need to be or have what we already are and have? Hebrews address this same problem. Many 1st century Jews were still going to the Tabernacle to offer sacrifices for the forgiveness of sins. The writer clearly explains how Christ's atonement was complete and brought an end to any future sacrifice (offering) for the forgiveness of sin. That is why Romans 8:1 can say what it says. I think the problem you are having might be that you are forcing the two verses to fit into perhaps a preconceived idea. I don't believe the two contradict each other because they are part of the same gospel message John is preaching. John is addressing an audience of people who are both unredeemed and redeemed. Perhaps as in our own congregations today there are those who are under the impression they are saved because they walked an aisle, repeated certain words and were baptized. Our Baptist churches are filled with unregenerate church members. John is merely doing the same any preacher would do. When presenting the gospel, there should always be a warning to repent of sin and the consequences for not doing so. There should also be the message of security for knowing that, as Christians, our sins (all) are forgiven (2:12). 1 John 1:9 and 2:12 merely compliment the complete gospel message and warns those who falsely believe they can be saved and have no problems with sin versus those who have problems when they sin and therefore, confess to God to restore the fellowship (not membership) of their relationship. Sam Hughey |
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