Results 181 - 200 of 213
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: itiswritten Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
181 | Why is dawn important? | Is 8:20 | itiswritten | 105586 | ||
To me this verse means light. Dawn represents the enlightenment of God. Without the enlightenment of the Lord on His Word, His word can be used legalistically. That is why the Jewish leaders were at odds with Jesus so much when He walked this earth. The Pharisees were being legalistic. They had lost touch with the God of the Word and without His light, His word is misunderstood and misused. Look at Matthew 16:12-19. Here Jesus is saying that His kingdom will be full of those who understand the revealed word of God. The Bible as enlightened by the Holy Spirit. That which is revealed is enlightened or has the dawn or light. Only a few moments later, Peter made another statement which conclusion he came to by human logic, not enlightenment - see Matthew 16:21-23. Peter was thinking along the lines of human logic which says - He is a good man, nothing bad can happen to Him, but God's plan was not according to human logic. Had Peter's conclusion been enlightened, he would have been able to understand that this was necessary...but he was not yet able to receive such light. Anyway, that is what this verse of Isaiah 8:20 means to me. Itiswritten |
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182 | queen of heaven | Jer 7:18 | itiswritten | 80473 | ||
Having looked in the Bible and seen this expression in Jeremiah 7:18 and Jeremiah 44:17, I do not know which of the idols these scriptures are referring to but I would say it speaks of Ashtoreth or Isis or Ishtar or one of the goddesses of sexual productivity which the surrounding nations worshipped. Israel often fell into idolatry when it often also worshipped these idols. Itiswritten | ||||||
183 | queen of heaven | Jer 7:18 | itiswritten | 80579 | ||
Dear gbennett76, I just want to say that knowing about the Hebrew traditions and mysticisms and archaeology is interesting...I also have studied such things and I am of Hebrew descent. However, the Kabbala is not legitimate according to Scripture but is Hebrew witchcraft and the Holy Spirit is not a "force" but is a Person and you must be very careful. The Word of God is to take top-billing in all matters of faith and doctrine and the rest though interesting is (forgive me) a bunch of hog-wash or maybe even new age hogwash. It is a good idea that the Christian knows his enemy but a Christian need not be an expert in the enemy's teachings or rituals to deal with him/her; the Christian can simply use the armor of God as is depicted in Ephesians 6. Itiswritten |
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184 | What are Mortal and Venial sinis | Matthew | itiswritten | 87369 | ||
Dear Emmaus, For what it's worth, the idea of "mortal" and "venial" sins is a doctrine of the Roman Catholic Church. It has no biblical basis as far as I know. Having been raised a Roman Catholic (I now attend Assembly of God churches)I was taught that concept at an early age. Mortal sins were acts such as Not attending Mass on any given Sunday, Murder, Adultery, etc., and venial sins might be something like telling a "white lie" so as not to hurt someone's feelings, or making a snide remark about someone. As was said before, in reality, all sin is sin and God makes no distinction. But I thought this might answer your question. Itiswritten. |
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185 | What are Mortal and Venial sinis | Matthew | itiswritten | 87400 | ||
Dear Emmaus, Please do not take offense. As I said I was raised a Catholic. I was saved WHEN I WAS A CATHOLIC, as a Catholic, while reading my Catholic Bible. I am not saying this to "dis" the Catholic Church. I was taught by the Catholic Church that there were venial and mortal sins and that there was a purgatory. I was taught all about miracles and Jesus Christ. However, I was never told that I could have a conversion experience or have any such thing as an encounter with Jesus Christ the Savior of my soul. Not only that, according to Catholic church doctrine, I was practicing birth control and had not gone to church in 7 years which clearly put me in a state of mortal sin according to Catholic church teachings yet, One day, while reading my Catholic Bible, despite all the doctrine I had been taught I met Jesus Christ in my own living room. What I had been told from Catholic grammer school through college...had never told me this was possible. I do not believe that the scripture you refer to gives the same impression that the Catholic church teaching had in this area on myself and many others...the impression that well, if you are not clergy, you will sin...you can not be totally cleansed and you have to figure whatever you haven't been able to overcome in the flesh in this life will be burned off in purgatory for a time.I was taught by implication, to settle for that and that otherwise would be presumptuous to say the least. When Jesus came to me that day I was made instantly aware that I was a sinner (and not because of the reasons of doctrine that the church states), instantly aware that He loved me anyway, instantly aware that I was forgiven and cleansed and made a new person. It was a shock to me. A wonderful awareness but a shock as it showed me that sin was sin, that people had offended me but I was still a sinner because I was offended in the first place and my reaction was just as bad as those who had hurt me even if they were wrong. No mortal and venial...sin was sin, but that Jesus and what He did on the cross was the remedy and that there was no purgatory but you are either forgiven or not...period. Now mind you, I was reading the truths from my own CATHOLIC BIBLE and I do not say anyone should leave the Catholic Church. What I am saying simply is that this doctrine, as far as I know, about mortal and venial sins is taught in the Catholic church as doctrine almost exclusively. I don't think this scripture means that and this is simply my opinion. You are entitled to yours. I just want you to understand why I stated what I did...and the question that was put was simple and I thought looking for just that simple answer...that it was a doctrine of the Catholic church. I believe all doctrine should be from Scripture. I just do not agree that the Scripture you are quoting means the doctrine of mortal and venial sins as I was taught. But that is my own personal opinion. Itiswritten |
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186 | Salvation message of Jesus | Mark | itiswritten | 204747 | ||
Dear Lookinforacity, You will find this scripture in Mark 16:15 -itiswritten |
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187 | What is the significance of this verse? | Mark 14:52 | itiswritten | 81483 | ||
As you can see, it is in the gospel according to Mark. Traditionally, according to some scholars, it is believed that this is an account of John Mark about himself. It may be that this was the only one of the saints that was aware of this occurrance. Surely the other disciples were preoccupied with their own emotions that night. It is believed that he was the son of the woman, Mary, who let Jesus and His apostles use the upper room of her house for the Passover. It is believed that he was a young man or teenager at this time and it shows the fear he must have felt that night. He later became the writer of this gospel and we see him in the Book of Acts and some of the epistles, as he traveled to spread the gospel during the time of the apostle Paul.(Acts 12:12, Acts 15:37, II Timothy 4:11). I hope this is helpful. Itiswritten. |
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188 | Lucifer cast down? | Luke | itiswritten | 81415 | ||
I would just like to add this: Isaiah 14: 12-15. I believe this scripture, though it is directed toward a man of the time, was also an insight as to the actions and fate of Satan or Lucifer as he was once called. In Luke 10:18 Jesus mentions Satan's fate as being in process. Itiswritten. |
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189 | Was Luke one of the 12? | Luke 10:1 | itiswritten | 81427 | ||
Dear Ladylkh, Though he was a writer of one of the gospels, Luke, as well as Mark,was not an apostle. He may have been a disciple, Luke 10:1, but the first that we see reference to him is as a writer of a gospel, the book of Acts and in II Corinthians 13:14, Colossians 4:14, II Timothy 4:11 and Philemon 1:24. He was not active until the time of the apostles, after the Resurrection and Ascension of Jesus Christ. His name is not a Jewish one, but a Gentile one so it is believed he is the only Gentile writer of the Bible. He may never have actually met Jesus before the Resurrection as Jesus never met Paul before the road to Damascus. It is believed by many that he got the information for the early part of Jesus's life from Mary, Jesus' mother because at the time he wrote his gospel, Mary was staying near where he was, under the hospitality of John the apostle. And it was thought that he would have had opportunity to interview her and so have information of Jesus' early life that others would not have had. I hope this is of some help to you. Itiswritten |
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190 | Which chapter about a lost coin? | Luke 15:8 | itiswritten | 99804 | ||
The parable of the Lost Coin is in Luke 15:8-9, where Jesus likens the woman's joy at finding the coin as similar to heaven when a sinner repents. To God a sinner is one who is lost. Hope this is helpful. Itiswritten |
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191 | did judas eat at the last supper? | John | itiswritten | 29300 | ||
Dear SAM, Yes Judas ate with Jesus and lived with him for most of the time of His earthly ministry. There is a reference to this at the Last Supper, where we know he ate at least part of the meal in Matthew 13:26. Hope this is of some help to you. | ||||||
192 | did judas eat at the last supper? | John | itiswritten | 29301 | ||
Dear SAM, Yes Judas ate with Jesus and lived with him for most of the time of His earthly ministry. There is a reference to this at the Last Supper, where we know he ate at least part of the meal in Matthew 13:26. Hope this is of some help to you. | ||||||
193 | Is God's love unconditional ? | John 3:16 | itiswritten | 92018 | ||
Dear Michaelogical, I believe God's love is unconditional and His Salvation is conditional. What I mean by this is that God loves all of us and He gave His only Begotten Son to suffer and die for each and every one of us...no matter our sex, no matter our nationality, no matter our race, no matter our intelligence; He reached out His love to all of us in this way and He would have done it if you were the only man or woman. No matter what we have done, if we will turn to Him and turn away from our sinful ways He will not condemn, but will unconditionally offer His love and forgiveness. However, Salvation is conditional. It is on the condition that we accept the provision that He made and that is in accepting the death, resurrection and Lordship of His Son. (read Acts 4:12; Romans 10: 9-11). Itiswritten. |
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194 | filled and upon mean the same thing | John 7:39 | itiswritten | 97573 | ||
Before Jesus was glorified (read John 7:39), the Holy Spirit would come alongside certain persons to enable them to do God's will in this earth. But He did not indwell the individual believers.The presence of the Holy Spirit dwelled in the temple in the time that Solomon built the temple and dedicated it. He demonstrated this so that the people could witness this event as is cited in I Kings 8:10 where the Word tells us that the glory of the Lord filled the temple so powerfully that He appeared as a dark cloud and filled it so that no priest could perform while His presence was manifested there. The Holy Spirit did not indwell individuals in those days but came along side. If a person who walked with the Holy Spirit sinned, the Holy Spirit might leave that person. See (Ps. 51:11). However, after Jesus was glorified, the Holy Spirit now indwells individuals and we are told He will never leave nor forsake us.(Hebrews 13:5). [1] So, I do not believe the people in the Old Testament were filled or indwelt with the Holy Spirit (That is why [Matthew 11:11) we are told that the least in the kingdom is greater than John the Baptist.) [2] Filled means indwelt and upon means over, covering alongside (not inside). However, it was the same Holy Spirit and the same Personality and the same Power. It is just that before Jesus was glorified, it was not possible for the Holy Spirit to indwell the believer. I don't really comprehend it exactly but until we could actually be redeemed and our Savior Jesus Christ was glorified, it was not possible - It just is what the Scripture tells us. I hope this is helpful. Itiswritten |
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195 | filled and upon mean the same thing | John 7:39 | itiswritten | 112633 | ||
Dear Ray, Sorry I have taken so long. I have been having problems with my connection lately. OK - I say filled means indwelt - Well if you fill a cup you pour into it. You don't go on or next to but in. So, that is why I say that filled means indwelt. Romans 8:9- says "But ye are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God DWELL IN you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his." Well, I don't quite understand what you are asking me. If one dwells inside of something or someone he is inside of just as water can fill a cup or be inside of. Whereas, before the crucifixion and resurrection this did not seem to occur. In the Old Testament the presence of God's Holy Spirit was manifest inside of the ark and later in the Holy of holies in the temple. However, He was with the prophets and others but did not dwell in them individually. [see John 14:15-17] I hope this answers your question because I am not really sure what you mean. As far as the other Scriptures you cite, I agree with you on them also. No problem at all. I also believe that the rivers of living water are another way of speaking of the same Holy Spirit who indwells the believer. Sincerely, Itiswritten |
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196 | filled and upon mean the same thing | John 7:39 | itiswritten | 112678 | ||
Hello Ray, It is good to hear from you again. OK from the top. I agree that we are the ones to be filled not the ones filling. I also agree that the Holy Spirit does not take control of us but that He fills us. However, I do not agree that the spirit in Ephesians 5:18 is a gift as in the lower case "spirit." The reason I believe otherwise is because in the King James version, the Amplified, the New American Standard Version and also the New International Versions, they all print out "Spirit" as capitalized meaning "Holy Spirit" and the Amplified states it as: "And do not get drunk with wine, for that is debauchery; but ever be filled and stimulated with the (Holy) Spirit." I am not a linguist, sadly. So I cannot look at the original languages. However, when in doubt about something, I apply the next best thing I can and that is to compare several good translations of the Bible and see how they seem to translate. Having done this I respectfully disagree on this point. And so this is the reason for my opinion. Sincerely, Itiswritten |
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197 | filled and upon mean the same thing | John 7:39 | itiswritten | 112841 | ||
Hello Ray, Now I never said anything about all these other scriptures you are pointing out here. Where are you coming from? OK now I think you are looking for an argument and I don't really believe in arguing matters of faith. Do you believe in the Trinity of the Godhead? I do. And I am very aware that the word "trinity" is not in the Bible. Be that as it may. The Holy Spirit is a person to me. He is not a gift, or a force in the sense that would make Him impersonal. If one has the Spirit of God in him that Spirit of God which is in him may manifest certain gifts and/or blessings according to the grace the Holy Spirit may give that individual which would enable that person to take his place in the body of Christ as one who prays as an intercessor or functions as an evangelist or as a pastor, etc. Many languages have different words for the different nuances in meaning for words like love, for instance. They have a different word for erotic love, or affection, or unconditional love. The English language does not have this and so we rely on adjectives or whatever is the context of the sentence or paragraph to convey the meaning of something.I did not mean to imply that I rely on capitalization to decide what the meaning of a word is in a text. In fact, in the original Hebrew, as I understand it, there were no capitalizations and there were no periods or any separations whatsoever. I don't mean to sound harsh. However, I prefer to study and learn and walk with the Lord and share, than to picking and being argumentative. I am not angry. I am just tired. I don't like picking. Sincerely, Itiswritten |
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198 | filled and upon mean the same thing | John 7:39 | itiswritten | 113093 | ||
Hi Ray, Sorry to hear that you had a rough time. I want you to know that I do pray for you from time to time. Sincerely Itiswritten Be that as it may...back to the subject at hand. I do not wish to convey that my bottom line is whether a particular scripture is written in capitals or not. I compare scripture and context and what other scriptures also say and I believe in testing the spirits also. That being said, I still believe the Holy Spirit is within me as He is in every believer in Christ Jesus who died for his/her sins and rose from the dead. I still say the Holy Spirit is a person Who is within me not because of captitalization but because it also says "Greater is he that is in you than he that is in the world." [1 John 4:4]among other scriptures. In comparing verses 11 and 16 of I Cor. 2, I would say verse 11 distinguishes man's spirit from God's Spirit. I also believe that when verse 16 speaks of the mind of the Lord and that we have the mind of Christ, I believe it means that because we have His Spirit within us we have access to the mind of Christ. The Holy Spirit also will remind us of all that we have learned from Him and from His Word.[John 14:26]. |
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199 | filled and upon mean the same thing | John 7:39 | itiswritten | 113094 | ||
Hi Ray, Sorry to hear that you had a rough time. I want you to know that I do pray for you from time to time. Be that as it may...back to the subject at hand. I do not wish to convey that my bottom line is whether a particular scripture is written in capitals or not. I compare scripture and context and what other scriptures also say and I believe in testing the spirits also. That being said, I still believe the Holy Spirit is within me as He is in every believer in Christ Jesus who died for his/her sins and rose from the dead. I still say the Holy Spirit is a person Who is within me not because of captitalization but because it also says "Greater is he that is in you than he that is in the world." [1 John 4:4]among other scriptures. In comparing verses 11 and 16 of I Cor. 2, I would say verse 11 distinguishes man's spirit from God's Spirit. I also believe that when verse 16 speaks of the mind of the Lord and that we have the mind of Christ, I believe it means that because we have His Spirit within us we have access to the mind of Christ. The Holy Spirit also will remind us of all that we have learned from Him and from His Word.[John 14:26]. Sincerely, Itiswritten |
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200 | filled and upon mean the same thing | John 7:39 | itiswritten | 113371 | ||
Dear Ray, I appreciate the things that you are saying but I respectfully disagree. The only Scripture I can find that speaks of the Spirit of God given without measure is concerning Christ Himself. It is not the "spirit" of God in that sense. The Scripture which speaks of anyone receiving the Spirit without measure:That is located in John 3:34 and the verses surrounding it. I don't believe we receive the Holy Spirit without measure. I believe the Lord meets us where we are and fills us and that as we mature in our walk with Him our capacity enlarges and we can be filled more and more. I also do not believe any of us reach perfection this side of heaven. If there is another Scripture which speaks of the "spirit" without measure can you point it out to me? And then I can consider it. Sincerely, Itiswritten |
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